ARCHIVE: Open Theism part 1

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RobE

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mitchellmckain said:
Well yes the problem of evil is somewhat central to the whole issue of free will versus absolute foreknowledge. When God created life, He created the possibility of evil. Every parent does the same thing. Their will to love their child justifies what they do. But Genesis chapter 6 is entirely at odds with the idea that God created man with the knowledge that man would be utterly depraved and evil. Furthermore I am absolutely opposed to the even the possibility that evil is necessary for good. Yes God can turn the evil actions of men toward a greater good. That is the power of God. But it is insane to think that the good of God depends on such evil actions of men. God does good in spite of the evil of men NOT because that evil empowers God in any way!

Nor am I claiming that evil is necessary to empower God. God simply brings good out of things that men(and Satan) have meant for evil. My position is that part of perfection is the rejection of evil. It just so happens that God gave Adam a rule in the garden before Adam acquired the knowledge of good and evil.

Why didn't God place the tree outside of the garden?

Romans 4:15
because law brings wrath. And where there is no law there is no transgression.​

And why did God institute the rule of not eating of the tree which was there?

Romans 7:11 For sin, seizing the opportunity afforded by the commandment, deceived me, and through the commandment put me to death. 12So then, the law is holy, and the commandment is holy, righteous and good. 13Did that which is good, then, become death to me? By no means! But in order that sin might be recognized as sin, it produced death in me through what was good, so that through the commandment sin might become utterly sinful.​

Which produced this result in Mankind:

Genesis 3:22 And the LORD God said, "The man has now become like one of us, knowing good and evil.​

And sin came into the world through Adam and was made impotent through the actions of Jesus Christ who was perfected before the dawn of creation.

Romans 5:12Therefore, just as sin entered the world through one man, and death through sin, and in this way death came to all men, because all sinned— 13for before the law was given, sin was in the world. But sin is not taken into account when there is no law. 14Nevertheless, death reigned from the time of Adam to the time of Moses, even over those who did not sin by breaking a command, as did Adam, who was a pattern of the one to come.
15But the gift is not like the trespass. For if the many died by the trespass of the one man, how much more did God's grace and the gift that came by the grace of the one man, Jesus Christ, overflow to the many! 16Again, the gift of God is not like the result of the one man's sin: The judgment followed one sin and brought condemnation, but the gift followed many trespasses and brought justification. 17For if, by the trespass of the one man, death reigned through that one man, how much more will those who receive God's abundant provision of grace and of the gift of righteousness reign in life through the one man, Jesus Christ.

18Consequently, just as the result of one trespass was condemnation for all men, so also the result of one act of righteousness was justification that brings life for all men. 19For just as through the disobedience of the one man the many were made sinners, so also through the obedience of the one man the many will be made righteous.

20The law was added so that the trespass might increase. But where sin increased, grace increased all the more, 21so that, just as sin reigned in death, so also grace might reign through righteousness to bring eternal life through Jesus Christ our Lord.

Granted that God will allow certain people to continue in their sin as part of a greater plan (such as pharoah and Judas). But the choices which led to their predictable patterns of behavior were theirs. I will however deny that God planned their choices and behavior from before they were born, or that God would EVER need someone to do evil as part of a plan for greater good. The situational (consequetialist) ethics that the ends justify the means which such a belief supports is intolerable.

Perhaps intolerable, but my claim is not that God planned their choices, just that He knew their choices; and provided to them, for those choices, through our Lord Jesus Christ.

I was making precisely the same objection against Jim Hilston's post. So if Patrick was making such idolatrous accusations against you then throwing John Hilston's post back at him was in some sense just. I have used this kind of reflection tactic against people myself but I have tried to make it absolutely clear that that is what I am doing, for I do not think that one should emulate the bad behavior of others.

I, too, would never had made such accusations against Patrick as Hilston did. That's why I made it clear they were his words and not mine. The God which open theist's seek is the same God which I seek.

So no, I do not agree with Patricks formulation of the arguement. I would say that absolute foreknowledge leads both Patrick and I to the inescapable conclusion that God is responsible for evil and since we cannot believe in such a God, we cannot believe in absolute foreknowledge. But in your case you do not see the same connection. We worship the same all powerful, all knowing, transcendant God, but our puny understandings of this God cause us to squabble like dogs over a tiny scrap of meat.

In our search for truth we often trip over the molehills. We see the others position as wrong because it author's evil or it leaves God's will subject to our own. The truth probably lies between these. Augustine's solution was that God maintains his plans, while changing His methods. Your solution, which I find valid for the most part, is that God chooses not to know.

Thanks for the reply,
Rob
 

RobE

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For instance... if God plans to do something do you believe He is free to change His plans? Or is He stuck in His foreknowledge?

God, being all powerful, is able to change His perfect plans. But why should He if they are perfect?
 

RobE

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themuzicman said:
You've already acknowledged that God may not freely violate His own Word. Thus, once God has declared something, whether it be what He will do, or what He will NOT do, He has constrained Himself to doing it, and when He does it, He is compelled to do what He has said He would do. That's no longer a free action.

Since you don't seem to want to discuss your premises any longer......

I'll ask: Does righteousness require that you freely reject evil?

Has God ever been able to do anything but be righteous, even before we were informed of His condition?

Further, I think I know what the ''E' stands for in your name: Equivocation. You do it frequently, but never acknowledge that it happens.

Muz

Rob said:
Are you able to see my equivocation better in this form?(from 2 earlier posts)

Ok.

Rob
 

Nathon Detroit

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RobE said:
God, being all powerful, is able to change His perfect plans. But why should He if they are perfect?
Simple! God has the ability to change His plans so that He can perfectly react to those of us that are NOT perfect.

God is Living. God has the ability to change His mind and react to situations as He sees fit.

Think about God's attribute of being merciful. Showing mercy is a type reaction to His creation. How about vengeance? Vengeance is a type of reaction to His creation.

God clearly describes Himself reacting to His creation thousands of times in the Bible. The ability to change and react is a fundamental ability of any living being, a God that cannot react or change is not living.
 

Nathon Detroit

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Rob, your signature is evidence you don't understand the arguments people are making.

When I say.... "The future does not exist"

And when Bob Hill says.... "God could know the future if He wanted to."

Those two statements are perfectly reasonable and do not contradict one another.

Here is how....

The future DOES NOT EXIST! Yet if God wanted to create differently, and create a complete race of "robots" or "puppets" that followed out His every command He could have done that! He is THAT powerful. God could have scripted the future, but He didn't want to. Basically that is what Calvinism teaches isn't it? That God scripted out the future? So even though the future doesn't exist God could have scripted it all out and therefore settled it. Yet God chose not to create that way, He chose to create beings with a will of there own and leave the future open (in large part).

Therefore, you can mockingly place those statements together in your signature if you like, but it will only serve as a monument to your ignorance on the topic.
 

Lighthouse

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Lonster said:
Right, but it 'seems' to me this definition is only 'knowledge' and not 'fore'knowledge which is probably more of a confusion than "foreknowledge vs. exhaustive foreknowledge" in our discussions.

The problem is our respective understanding of future and God's ability to see it clearly. Again I point to future visions (not dreams, but actually seeing a future event) as evidence that God sees future reality. I'm still not clear where OV stands on this perspective.
God foreknows that if a driver speeds past a speed trap, then the driver will be pulled over, and ticketed. Unless it's a really hot girl, and the officer is a straight male.:chuckle:
 

Clete

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RobE said:
God, being all powerful, is able to change His perfect plans. But why should He if they are perfect?
The fact that God is able to change His plans regarding imperfect men is precisely what makes His plans perfect in the first place. Any static plan regarding the actions of evil men is an extremely flawed and totally unwise plan.

Resting in Him,
Clete
 

Nathon Detroit

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Clete said:
The fact that God is able to change His plans regarding imperfect men is precisely what makes His plans perfect in the first place. Any static plan regarding the actions of evil men is an extremely flawed and totally unwise plan.
:up:

For instance....

Initially God's plan for Adam was living eternally in God's good graces. Yet Adam betrayed God and sinned. If God's plans were static, God would have not been able to change His arrangement with Adam and adjust to Adam's sin by casting him out of the garden.

Adam, would have had the ultimate loophole.... "ha ha God you cannot change! So no matter what I do I will always be in your good graces." :nono:
 

Lon

Well-known member
Knight said:
Well....

God knows everything knowable.

That would include:

- everything He plans to do (that's foreknowledge).
- everything we plan to do at any given moment (that's foreknowledge)
- all the possible and impending variables that might affect our choices and our ability to do our will i.e., weather, physical and mechanical limitations that we cannot foresee, other peoples will/plans and intentions etc. and on and on (that's foreknowledge)

Knowing everything knowable grants God an incredible degree of foreknowledge.

Yet all the parts of God's knowledge that have to do with foreknowledge are flexible from His perspective. After all.... He is in control of His own faculties wouldn't you agree? God isn't a slave to His foreknowledge is He?

For instance...
if God plans to do something do you believe He is free to change His plans? Or is He stuck in His foreknowledge?

That is in fact part of the problem. How are we to see God's will? It is perfect, but what does that mean? Is it changed from glory to glory? Is it perfect and complete so that it needs no changing? Part of foreknowledge understanding would play on these concepts and His power to accomplish. For the OV, I'd say there is an equally troubling question from the flip side: "If God is powerful enough, why wouldn't His decrees be fulfilled with prophecy that is unconditional. Going back to the Ez. 26 passage from an OV perspective, why wasn't it done?

Where my position is that it was fulfilled, the OV determine a change of mind or plan, yet then why give the prophecy? I have a hard time following the theology logic in such a scenario.
 

Nathon Detroit

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Lonster said:
That is in fact part of the problem. How are we to see God's will? It is perfect, but what does that mean? Is it changed from glory to glory?
Is "glory" a part of the will? :idunno:

Is it perfect and complete so that it needs no changing? Part of foreknowledge understanding would play on these concepts and His power to accomplish. For the OV, I'd say there is an equally troubling question from the flip side: "If God is powerful enough, why wouldn't His decrees be fulfilled with prophecy that is unconditional. Going back to the Ez. 26 passage from an OV perspective, why wasn't it done?
Simple! Because man failed on his end!

I.e., Jer 18 (“if it does evil in My sight so that it does not obey My voice, then I will relent concerning the good with which I said I would benefit it.)

Where my position is that it was fulfilled, the OV determine a change of mind or plan, yet then why give the prophecy? I have a hard time following the theology logic in such a scenario.
Huh? :confused:

Prophecy is a mechanism to effect our will, to change the course of upcoming future events to more closely align with what God wants us to do.
 

Clete

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Knight said:
IProphecy is a mechanism to effect our will, to change the course of upcoming future events to more closely align with what God wants us to do.
Terrific point!

What a terrifically merciful and wise God we serve! :BRAVO:
 

elected4ever

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knight said:
Prophecy is a mechanism to effect our will, to change the course of upcoming future events to more closely align with what God wants us to do.
Can you elaborate a little on that. So I can better understand what you are saying. I may even agree because I can see some truth in it after thinking about it.
 

Lon

Well-known member
Knight said:
Is "glory" a part of the will? :idunno:

Try substituting "perfection to perfection" then. You are over analyzing and missing the premise.
Knight said:
Simple! Because man failed on his end.
Are you confusing conditional (man must do something) with unconditional?
Knight said:
I.e., Jer 18 (“if it does evil in My sight so that it does not obey My voice, then I will relent concerning the good with which I said I would benefit it.)
conditional
Knight said:
Why would God give an 'un'conditional prophecy if it was not to be fulfilled?

Knight said:
Prophecy is a mechanism to effect our will, to change the course of upcoming future events to more closely align with what God wants us to do.

This I mostly agree with (although it is also about glorifying Himself-sometimes the prophecy doesn't benefit man as in judgements). At any rate, this still doesn't explain why you'd believe Tyre wasn't destroyed. How did this effect man's will? How did it more closely align man with God's will? Doesn't it in fact do the opposite? "God is incapable of making a concrete determination." I believe the Ezekiel prophecy was fulfilled, but I'm trying to understand your OV perspective of it not being fulfilled and what that means to an OV understanding. In my mind, completing the prophecy for building alignment would have stronger effect and logic if it were fulfilled. OV hasn't explained anything better for understanding this passage or prophecy. It begs the continued question: Why prophesy if it will not be fulfilled in unconditional terms. Going to Jonah, you say "unconditional" but again, if it were unconditional, Jonah would not have run, the message would be delivered, and the Ninevites would have been destroyed. God didn't send a similar message to Sodom and Gommorah. It was conditional on ten righteous. When God sends a messenger to Ninevah, there is reasoning behind it that Jonah understood all too well. That they would/might repent. Again, this passage doesn't make sense from OV being "unconditional" prophecy. I always see unconditional prophecy as 100% fulfilled. God is not contradictory. He will not tell His people to stone a false prophet and then make a false prophecy Himself. The Jewish people never understood this scenario from OV perspective. They either understood the prophecy as 'conditional' or that the prophecy was fulfilled. This has ever been their understanding of such and mutually exclusive.
 

Lighthouse

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elected4ever said:
Can you elaborate a little on that. So I can better understand what you are saying. I may even agree because I can see some truth in it after thinking about it.
Click on the link, and you'll get an elaboration.
 

Nathon Detroit

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Lonster said:
I always see unconditional prophecy as 100% fulfilled.
My guess is you will view every single prophecy that DIDN'T come to pass as conditional while every single prophecy that DID come to pass as unconditional.

I don't buy into that type of circular reasoning.

I assert that every prophecy has an element of being conditional in one way or another.

What it really boils down to is.... God has the ability to change His plans based on man's actions.
 

mitchellmckain

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RobE said:
Why didn't God place the tree outside of the garden?
Because the commandment wasn't really about eating a fruit off a tree any more that eternal life is obtained by eating a fruit off a tree. These trees are the most obviously symbolic objects in the whole of Bible. The tree of the knowlege of good and evil represents some natural part of human life which is perilous and harmful to the human spirit when taken prematurely without the guidance and blessing of God.


RobE said:
And why did God institute the rule of not eating of the tree which was there?
Because as children grow up you must somehow get them to go from being protected from trouble every second to learning how to keep out of trouble themselves, and there is only one way to do that, and that is with a parental commandment. Somehow before a growing child learns how to remove child saftey covers on electrical sockets (and yet long before they understand the nature and dangers of electricity, they have to learn not to stick metal things in those socket. How? By parental commandment.


RobE said:
Which produced this result in Mankind:

Genesis 3:22 And the LORD God said, "The man has now become like one of us, knowing good and evil.​
Yes this statement is very interesting! Because it doesn't quite make sense. Does it really mean that human beings learned the difference between good and evil, just as God does? Is true that because of this event, mankind understood all the consequences of their actions, just as God does? That claim would seem to be absurd. All we have to do is look around us to see that this is not true. And so I don't think that is what it means at all. I think it means they had learned the concepts of good and evil and were suddenly in the position to dictate what is good and what is evil to others - JUST LIKE GOD.



why?



because they became parents.
 

RobE

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Knight said:
Simple! God has the ability to change His plans so that He can perfectly react to those of us that are NOT perfect.

It seems that then He would be going along with our plan, though.

God is Living. God has the ability to change His mind and react to situations as He sees fit.

Absolutely! God is capable of anything. That doesn't mean He will do anything.

Think about God's attribute of being merciful. Showing mercy is a type reaction to His creation. How about vengeance? Vengeance is a type of reaction to His creation.

God clearly describes Himself reacting to His creation thousands of times in the Bible. The ability to change and react is a fundamental ability of any living being, a God that cannot react or change is not living.

I think we've already discussed this here on this thread.

My position remains....

RobE is not debating whether or not God changes in any way whatsoever.

RobE is saying that a change in God’s mind doesn't constitute change in the same sense which is being discussed when one asserts the immutability of God. He is saying that the immutability of God applies only to who God is, His character, His righteousness, etc. He is also saying that this "qualified immutability" that he holds in common with us Open Theists is in agreement with what both Augustine and Calvin believed as well, and that therefore a major argument that we employ against Calvinism and Augustinian theology is based on a misunderstanding or an outright misrepresentation of Augustine’s belief.

Hope this clears up some of the muddy water.

Resting in Him,
Clete

A change of mind doesn't constitute a change in essence.

As for the tag line. I use it to simply be able to find things when I want them. Bob Hill often posts many insightful things which I like to reflect upon when trying to decide how to approach o.t.. Believe it or not, I have nothing but respect for Mr. Hill and the particular post which I tagged was very insightful. The tag for GIT came about because he said God's purpose was greater than suffering and this actually gave me a lot of insight into the entire debate here. It's not something I wish to forget. Rooster cueing came up because of Bob Enyart's post during the debate. I thought it was funny and clever, especially about the part of 'squeezing a rooster'.

Earlier, I tagged a post by Clete so I could find it and it upset him as well. I'll remove it immediately after this response.

I just added yours so that I might find where this whole line of reasoning began.

Rob ;)
 

RobE

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Clete said:
Saying that I do what I want is exactly the same thing as saying I chose to do it. You are making a false dichotomy between wanting and choosing. You make a list of your wants and you'll have a list of choices you've made.

Well, I think I'm saying that you'll only act upon one choice/want and no other.

It foresees what you are going to do (future tense - not present tense).

Unless your God.

Why do you want what you want? Foreknowledge, if it is exhaustive, includes your wants too, Rob! And as such, you don't get to choose those either! At best all you've done is moved the problem back a step from action to motive. But just as running is an act of the body, motives are the actions of the mind and spirit. And make no mistake about it, we choose our motives (i.e. our wants/desires).

Isn't that step enough if God simply foresees your actions?

Rob

p.s. I typically wouldn't make this argument because I argue from Molina's perspective which says God's foreknowledge is simply pre-calculation where your will is concerned; and foreordination where God's plans are concerned.
 

RobE

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mitchellmckain said:
Yes this statement is very interesting! Because it doesn't quite make sense. Does it really mean that human beings learned the difference between good and evil, just as God does? Is true that because of this event, mankind understood all the consequences of their actions, just as God does? That claim would seem to be absurd. All we have to do is look around us to see that this is not true. And so I don't think that is what it means at all. I think it means they had learned the concepts of good and evil and were suddenly in the position to dictate what is good and what is evil to others - JUST LIKE GOD.

Paul states that the law came into the world after sin came into the world.

Rob
 
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