GALATIANS 2:7 WHICH GOSPEL TO PREACH?

[DougE]

Galatians 2:7 But contrariwise, when they saw that the gospel of the uncircumcision was committed unto me, as the gospel of the circumcision was unto Peter;

2:8 (For he that wrought effectually in Peter to the apostleship of the circumcision, the same was mighty in me toward the Gentiles

There are two gospels presented in Galatians 2:7. This verse does not say the gospel TO the uncircumcision or TO the circumcision. That it says OF means it is clearly identified as being distinct gospels.

Peter and the apostles preached the gospel of the circumcision. They preached salvation unto eternal life by believing on the name of Jesus.

Acts 10:43 To him give all the prophets witness, that through his name whosoever believeth in him shall receive remission of sins.

John 20:31 But these are written, that ye might believe that Jesus is the Christ, the Son of God; and that believing ye might have life through his name.

The gospel of the Circumcision that Peter is preaching is the fulfillment of the new covenant God made with Israel and Judah alone (Jeremiah 31:31). Jesus's prophesied death and resurrection would fulfill the new testament promise given to Israel (Acts 3:18 Luke 1:68-75 Genesis 3:15 Luke 24:44-47 Luke 18:31-34 Isaiah 53:1-12 Psalm 16:8-10).

Peter preached repentance to Israel for crucifying Jesus (Acts 3:14-15 Acts 2:23 Acts 2:38). The resurrection of Jesus Christ would fulfill the future promise of his Kingdom on earth (Acts 2:30). This promised Kingdom would put Jesus on the throne of David (Luke 1:32-33); enable Israel to reign and rule with him over the nations (Revelation 20:4-6); and be a light of salvation to the Gentiles, thru the indwelling of the Holy Spirit (Isaiah 42:6 Ezekiel 36:24-28).

Paul was preaching the gospel of the uncircumcision. He was sent to the Jew first, then the Gentiles. He is the apostle to the Gentiles in this dispensation of Grace (Romans 11:13).

Paul received his gospel and ministry from revelations from Jesus Christ (Galatians 1:11-12). Paul preached salvation in Christ as a gift given freely to all that believe (Romans 3:24-26 Romans 5:18).

Paul preached faith in Christ alone, and the complete salvation provided in his death on the cross and resurrection (1 Corinthians 15:1-4). Paul preached faith in Christ alone, faith in what Christ did on the cross in dying for our sins, as our substitute; faith in his blood for our complete forgiveness (Romans 3:25 Colossians 1:14) and his resurrection for our justification unto eternal life (Romans 4:25).

In the dispensation of grace, which was not revealed until Paul, we will find no difference between Jew and Gentile (Galatians 3:28), but rather, justification to eternal life to all who believe, Jew or Gentile, and the unity of being in one body (Romans 12:5). Paul preached a gospel of Grace apart from Israel. A gospel that did not require the law or works (Romans 3:21-24 Ephesians 2:8-9). Paul preached that the wall of seperation between Jew and Gentile was abolished by the cross (Ephesians 2:14). Paul preached a new creature in Christ (Galatians 6:15). Paul preached the body of Christ (Romans 12:5 1 Corinthians 12:27) the church and Christ the head of the body (Colossians 1:18 Ephesians 5:23).

Both Peter and Paul were approved and ordained of God. Peter was given a ministry to Israel and those who believed his preaching are in Christ. Israel was temporarily set aside along with Peter and his message. God revealed to Paul the dispensation of grace and the gospel of Christ for the present time. The promises to Israel will all be fulfilled.

 

[Right Divider]

Paul was preaching the gospel of the uncircumcision. He was sent to the Jew first, then the Gentiles.

Please provide scriptural support for this claim.

 

[DougE]

Please provide scriptural support for this claim.

Hi there

I was thinking of a couple verses

Romans 1:16 For I am not ashamed of the gospel of Christ: for it is the power of God unto salvation to every one that believeth; to the Jew first, and also to the Greek.

Acts 9:20 And straightway he preached Christ in the synagogues, that he is the Son of God.

What do you think ?

 

[Right Divider]

Hi there

I was thinking of a couple verses

Romans 1:16 For I am not ashamed of the gospel of Christ: for it is the power of God unto salvation to every one that believeth; to the Jew first, and also to the Greek.

Acts 9:20 And straightway he preached Christ in the synagogues, that he is the Son of God.

What do you think ?

I don't think that either of those passages support the idea that Paul was sent to the Jew first and then the gentile.

Romans 1:16 has nothing to do with Paul being sent at all. Paul is giving a history lesson there.

The remainder of Romans 1 and through Romans 2 is Paul going back in time to the Jews calling and failure to follow it. In that dispensation Israel was first and the gentiles second.
That is not true in the dispensation of the grace of God, as you have also pointed out before.

Act 9:20 was not done by God's sending him, it was his manner to call on his kinsmen in the flesh.

Act 17:1-2 KJV Now when they had passed through Amphipolis and Apollonia, they came to Thessalonica, where was a synagogue of the Jews: (2) And Paul, as his manner was, went in unto them, and three sabbath days reasoned with them out of the scriptures,​

Paul was not "sent to the Jew first and then the gentiles".

 

[jamie]

Paul was not "sent to the Jew first and then the gentiles".

"Immediately he preached the Christ in the synagogues, that He is the Son of God.
Then all who heard were amazed, and said, 'Is this not he who destroyed those who called on this name in Jerusalem, and has come here for that purpose, so that he might bring them bound to the chief priests?'

But Saul increased all the more in strength and confounded the Jews who dwelt in Damascus, proving that this Jesus is the Christ." (Acts 9:20-22)

 

[Right Divider]

"Immediately he preached the Christ in the synagogues, that He is the Son of God.
Then all who heard were amazed, and said, 'Is this not he who destroyed those who called on this name in Jerusalem, and has come here for that purpose, so that he might bring them bound to the chief priests?'

But Saul increased all the more in strength and confounded the Jews who dwelt in Damascus, proving that this Jesus is the Christ." (Acts 9:20-22)

Please feel free to show where PAUL WAS SENT TO THE JEW FIRST. Thanks.

 

[beloved57]

Its only one Gospel to be believed by the circumcision and uncircumcision Rom 1:16

16 [FONT=&quot]For I am not ashamed of the gospel of Christ: for it is the power of God unto salvation to every one that believeth; to the Jew first, and also to the Greek.[/FONT]

 

[DougE]

I don't think that either of those passages support the idea that Paul was sent to the Jew first and then the gentile.

Romans 1:16 has nothing to do with Paul being sent at all. Paul is giving a history lesson there.

The remainder of Romans 1 and through Romans 2 is Paul going back in time to the Jews calling and failure to follow it. In that dispensation Israel was first and the gentiles second.
That is not true in the dispensation of the grace of God, as you have also pointed out before.

Act 9:20 was not done by God's sending him, it was his manner to call on his kinsmen in the flesh.

Act 17:1-2 KJV Now when they had passed through Amphipolis and Apollonia, they came to Thessalonica, where was a synagogue of the Jews: (2) And Paul, as his manner was, went in unto them, and three sabbath days reasoned with them out of the scriptures,​

Paul was not "sent to the Jew first and then the gentiles".

Hello

You are technically correct but the point I was trying to convey was that Paul went to the Jews first with the gospel of Christ and when they would not receive it he turned to the Gentiles.

Then Paul and Barnabas waxed bold, and said, It was necessary that the word of God should first have been spoken to you: but seeing ye put it from you, and judge yourselves unworthy of everlasting life, lo, we turn to the Gentiles. Acts 13:46

 

[Right Divider]

Hello

You are technically correct but the point I was trying to convey was that Paul went to the Jews first with the gospel of Christ and when they would not receive it he turned to the Gentiles.

I'm just making it clear that he was not sent to them in that particular order. As you well know, there is neither Jew nor Greek in the body of Christ. That would make no sense if both were not equally "sent to" per Paul.

Then Paul and Barnabas waxed bold, and said, It was necessary that the word of God should first have been spoken to you: but seeing ye put it from you, and judge yourselves unworthy of everlasting life, lo, we turn to the Gentiles. Acts 13:46

The gospel of Christ was not something new and unique to Paul. The promises of "the Christ" are throughout the scripture.

 

[DougE]

I'm just making it clear that he was not sent to them in that particular order. As you well know, there is neither Jew nor Greek in the body of Christ. That would make no sense if both were not equally "sent to" per Paul.


The gospel of Christ was not something new and unique to Paul. The promises of "the Christ" are throughout the scripture.

Hello

You are right....the gospel of Christ is found elsewhere....I did not mean to assert otherwise, but Paul used it in regard to the gospel he preached.

Let me site Romans again.

Romans 1:16 For I am not ashamed of the gospel of Christ: for it is the power of God unto salvation to every one that believeth; to the Jew first, and also to the Greek.

This is not a historical statement to my understanding...it does begin at verse 18.

Romans 1:16 does present the order.

I fail to see that "neither Jew or Greek", which is in context to the body of Christ, is relevant to this verse....sorry.

I also thought of one more verse about Paul being "sent":

Acts 9:15 But the Lord said unto him, Go thy way: for he is a chosen vessel unto me, to bear my name before the Gentiles, and kings, and the children of Israel:

 

[Right Divider]

Hello

You are right....the gospel of Christ is found elsewhere....I did not mean to assert otherwise, but Paul used it in regard to the gospel he preached.

Let me site Romans again.

Romans 1:16 For I am not ashamed of the gospel of Christ: for it is the power of God unto salvation to every one that believeth; to the Jew first, and also to the Greek.

This is not a historical statement to my understanding...it does begin at verse 18.

Romans 1:16 does present the order.

I fail to see that "neither Jew or Greek", which is in context to the body of Christ, is relevant to this verse....sorry.

I also thought of one more verse about Paul being "sent":

Acts 9:15 But the Lord said unto him, Go thy way: for he is a chosen vessel unto me, to bear my name before the Gentiles, and kings, and the children of Israel:

So, once again, where does it SAY that Paul was "sent to the Jew first and then the gentile"? It doesn't.

I just like to stick closely to the facts of the Bible, that's all.

 

[DougE]

So, once again, where does it SAY that Paul was "sent to the Jew first and then the gentile"? It doesn't.

I just like to stick closely to the facts of the Bible, that's all.

Hi

You said....The gospel of Christ was not something new and unique to Paul. The promises of "the Christ" are throughout the scripture.

I just wanted to clarify that you can find the redemption in and of Christ throughout scripture, but it is only in Paul's epistles you will find the gospel of Christ.

 

[Right Divider]

Hi

You said....The gospel of Christ was not something new and unique to Paul. The promises of "the Christ" are throughout the scripture.

I just wanted to clarify that you can find the redemption in and of Christ throughout scripture, but it is only in Paul's epistles you will find the gospel of Christ.

The promises of Christ throughout are not "good news"? Paul says that the gospel of Christ was to the Jew first. Just because the gospel of Christ is not specifically referred to using that term in the past does not mean that it did not already exist. It was not until the Jews had rejected the Christ that God raised Paul and gave him the gospel that he alone preached.

And what does that have to do with my original contention that Paul was never "sent to the Jew first"?

 

[bcbsr]

Peter was given a ministry to Israel and those who believed his preaching are in Christ. Israel was temporarily set aside along with Peter and his message.

Actually Peter himself said the following in Acts 15 After much discussion, Peter got up and addressed them: "Brothers, you know that some time ago God made a choice among you that the Gentiles might hear from my lips the message of the gospel and believe."

So your premise is wrong.

 

[Right Divider]

Actually Peter himself said the following in Acts 15 After much discussion, Peter got up and addressed them: "Brothers, you know that some time ago God made a choice among you that the Gentiles might hear from my lips the message of the gospel and believe."

So your premise is wrong.

Peter did NOT preach to the gentiles in the SAME way that Paul did.

Peter is ONE of the TWELVE apostles that will sit on TWELVE thrones judging the TWELVE tribes of Israel. Matt 19:28, Luke 22:30
Paul is the ONE apostles of the gentiles. Rom 11:13, 1 Tim 2:7, 2 Tim 1:11

 

[DougE]

Actually Peter himself said the following in Acts 15 After much discussion, Peter got up and addressed them: "Brothers, you know that some time ago God made a choice among you that the Gentiles might hear from my lips the message of the gospel and believe."

So your premise is wrong.

Hi

And Paul also preached to Jews.

Peter, first off, was not preaching the same gospel as Paul. Paul preached the cross (1 Corinthians 1:18). Peter was preaching remission of sins by believing on the name of Jesus (Acts 10:43). Peter was preaching the gospel of the kingdom (Matthew 4:23 Luke 9:6 Acts 2:30).

Peter was preaching to Israel but the Gentiles also heard and believed (Acts 2:22 Acts 10:36 Acts 10:44-45).