ECT Establishing their own righteousness, Rom 9; historian Foerster on Pharisaism

Interplanner

Well-known member
How is it that the "real writer and grammar scholar" does not understand figures of speech?


Really? I'm shocked.


So?


Fiction.





The problem on figures of speech is that D'ists don't. Then, they don't know what they mean when they see them in all the NT, like the 'priestly duty' of preaching to the Gentiles.

on the remnant, you sound like you never knew they existed, or how many there are, or how much of the structure they form or how deep they run--having been started in Is 11 if not earlier.

The case in point is that you don't realize that the NT sees the remnant all the time; that it was the only community that mattered, that the race/state was a fiction of Judaism. It says so in Gal 3:17 when it refers to the law replacing the promise, which is the real RT problem, not the one touted today.

There is no NHNE until this earth is vaporized or otherwise melted down. That's why there is no Judaic aspect to the future in the most complete and longest doctrinal section (non-symbolic), 2 Peter 3. Which, by the way, mentions the NHNE>
 

Right Divider

Body part
The problem on figures of speech is that D'ists don't.
Is that another "real writer and grammar scholar" sentence?

Then, they don't know what they mean when they see them in all the NT, like the 'priestly duty' of preaching to the Gentiles.
Scripture?

This priestly duty TO GENTILES only exists when Israel is separate from gentiles. That is NOT what is going on in the dispensation of the grace of God where there is NO DIFFERENCE between the two. Do you remain completely ignorant to the FACT that Paul NEVER ONCE uses the word priest (or priesthood) in ANY of his epistles?

on the remnant, you sound like you never knew they existed, or how many there are, or how much of the structure they form or how deep they run--having been started in Is 11 if not earlier.
Liar. I know that Romans 11:4 refers to 1 Kings 19:18

There have been a number of remnants of Israel over their history. The LORD Jesus Christ came to gather a remnant when He came to earth.

The case in point is that you don't realize that the NT sees the remnant all the time; that it was the only community that mattered, that the race/state was a fiction of Judaism. It says so in Gal 3:17 when it refers to the law replacing the promise, which is the real RT problem, not the one touted today.
You don't seem to know what REMNANT means.

rem·nant
ˈremnənt/
noun

  • 1.
    a small remaining quantity of something.
    synonyms:remains, remainder, leftovers, residue, rest;technicalresiduum
    "the remnants of the picnic"
The REMNANT referred to in the Bible is the REMNANT of ISRAEL.

Paul refers to one such remnant in Romans 11 (which is a reference to 1 Kings 19:18).

There is no NHNE until this earth is vaporized or otherwise melted down.
Which is STILL a MINIMUM of 1000 years away. The LORD Jesus Christ will rule on the "old" earth for 1000 years BEFORE the NHNE come.

That's why there is no Judaic aspect to the future in the most complete and longest doctrinal section (non-symbolic), 2 Peter 3. Which, by the way, mentions the NHNE>
I always love a good "mention".
 
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Interplanner

Well-known member
Right Divider wrote:
Scripture?

This priestly duty TO GENTILES only exists when Israel is separate from gentiles. That is NOT what is going on in the dispensation of the grace of God where there is NO DIFFERENCE between the two. Do you remain completely ignorant to the FACT that Paul NEVER ONCE uses the word priest (or priesthood) in ANY of his epistles?


Are you unable to see the contradiction in that paragraph? Anyway, the passage is Rom 15:16.
 

Interplanner

Well-known member
RD wrote:
Which is STILL a MINIMUM of 1000 years away. The LORD Jesus Christ will rule on the "old" earth for 1000 years BEFORE the NHNE come.

Quote Originally Posted by Interplanner View Post
That's why there is no Judaic aspect to the future in the most complete and longest doctrinal section (non-symbolic), 2 Peter 3. Which, by the way, mentions the NHNE>
I always love a good "mention".




??? There is no Judaic aspect to the future in the several NT passages about it. There is no rule on the earth as you think; it is the kingdom now through the preaching of the Gospel, in conflict with the forces of darkness around the world. that's why the only place mentioning the 1000 years is the image-rich Rev 20, not in any of the ordinary language passages of the NT. And it is not Judaic. It is about the reign of the believers now.

"The rest of the dead are not raised until 1000 years ended" means we know the brave believers of the church's history are victorious in Christ but other dead people are not raised until the end of the reign, for judgement. Notice the language connection about those given thrones (20:4), and Jesus own declarations at the last supper...
 

Interplanner

Well-known member
Paul used that language about priestly duty and also compared himself to being a priest, I Cor 9:13, 14. But all believers are priests and are to offer spiritual sacrifices, 'spiritual' being that dirty word that rom 12 uses in 12:1. Priests do offerings, as you know.
 

Right Divider

Body part
Paul used that language about priestly duty and also compared himself to being a priest, I Cor 9:13, 14. But all believers are priests and are to offer spiritual sacrifices, 'spiritual' being that dirty word that rom 12 uses in 12:1. Priests do offerings, as you know.
Always confusing Paul's analogies.... you read fiction into everything.
 

Interplanner

Well-known member




They are just as Rom 12:1 says buddy. Don't do these Jew--Gentile things in conformity with the world (Judaism). the chapter is full of them. I happen to think he was linking back to 'mercies' in the end of 11, but horrors, that would be context wouldn't it!!! The letter to Romans has many places where it is trying to solve Jew--Gentile friction, and showing that God has had mercy on both in Christ is one way to answer that. another is to act that way, 15:7-9.
 

Interplanner

Well-known member
Is there really much difference between what 12:3 says and what he just said about being smug back in 11:20. No. that's your answer. That's how the ministry to the nations was the priestly duty he had in Christ, the living temple.
 

SaulToPaul 2

Well-known member
They are just as Rom 12:1 says buddy. Don't do these Jew--Gentile things in conformity with the world (Judaism). the chapter is full of them. I happen to think he was linking back to 'mercies' in the end of 11, but horrors, that would be context wouldn't it!!! The letter to Romans has many places where it is trying to solve Jew--Gentile friction, and showing that God has had mercy on both in Christ is one way to answer that. another is to act that way, 15:7-9.

Which ones are specific to you? Give us a few personal details.
 

Interplanner

Well-known member
Which ones are specific to you? Give us a few personal details.




That any person from another culture is to be accepted in Christ, because Christ is their righteousness, just like he is mine. That is what faith is, and each person has to express it. 'there is neither Jews nor Greek, slave nor free, male nor female, for you are all one in Christ Jesus. If you belong to Christ, then you are Abraham's seed, and heirs according to the promise. Gal 3:28-29.

The more you speak, the less shows that you know the first things about the NT.
 

SaulToPaul 2

Well-known member
That any person from another culture is to be accepted in Christ, because Christ is their righteousness, just like he is mine. That is what faith is, and each person has to express it. 'there is neither Jews nor Greek, slave nor free, male nor female, for you are all one in Christ Jesus. If you belong to Christ, then you are Abraham's seed, and heirs according to the promise. Gal 3:28-29.

The more you speak, the less shows that you know the first things about the NT.

So you are only a priest to other believers, but not unbelievers?
 
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