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What did it accomplish when sacrificed? What were it's limitations as a sin offering? Why?
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ECT Concerning the OT Pachal Lamb
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SaulToPaul 2
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Well, if you studied it out it would greatly influence your present opinions.
SaulToPaul 2
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I can only believe you know the "lamb" was offered up for other reasons as well and only wish to disturb the narrowness of what I stated for an accusation. Thank you but, no.. Read Lev 5:5-7
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SaulToPaul 2
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This passage isn't about the passover lamb.
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My point in starting this thread is to point up the fact that none of the sacrifices performed by man as directed by God were of a Divine nature, however, because of the innocence of the sacrifices, they were made holy unto to God but only for the "covering" of sins. Measure this understanding against the human Jesus who, in the end, was able to "deal" with the sin issue on an eternal level to become the single source of Divine LIFE that, by faith in Him, His *"imparted" Life will put the sin issue to death in man...
*Not "imputed", being that which only addresses salvation from eternal damnation but, "imparted' Life for to become an adopted son of God per John 1:12.
*Not "imputed", being that which only addresses salvation from eternal damnation but, "imparted' Life for to become an adopted son of God per John 1:12.
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I understand. My Bad for using the word, "paschal" however, the question remains and the word does come into play. Please read my last. Lets try to conclude somethings that I believe, will help us understand better, the why of Jesus, the man.
ttruscott
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The passover lamb was sacrificed to put its blood on the doorposts of the houses of the Israelites so when the angel of death passed over all of Egypt to kill the first born, their first born would be saved. Christ is the slain lamb in fact...His blood saves us from destruction until we can be released from the Egyptians (saved from the enslavement of sin by rebirth) and all leaven (sin) is removed for our houses (lives) and we are ready for the promised land (our heavenly marriage).
Peace, Ted
It may be different from a sin offering. Are you saying it was also not for sin?
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My whole point rests on the fact that the sacrificial OT lamb didn't need to be "Divine" to accomplish that for which it accomplished. . . . . . . neither did Jesus.
ttruscott
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Here is a list of all verses about the paschal lamb: http://bible.knowing-jesus.com/topics/Passover-lamb but it includes some references to the burnt offering which should not be included.
There are two lambs, one as a burnt offering for sin (never eaten I believe) and the paschal lamb sacrificed and eaten in remembrance of the Exodus (their escape from the slavery of sin to get to the promised land of heaven) which was changed to communion in memory of Him and His death for us at the Last Passover, which communion is also a type for the Heavenly state of the Marriage Union of love between Christ and His Bride, the Holy Church.
Two lambs as a type for Christ.
Peace, Ted
The verses are helpful.
I need help with Theology in general, not just understanding yours.