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This is what happens when one has been looking for an opening into a conversation that goes counter to all that they been gullible enough to believe without ANY question, ALL THESE YEARS! I simply highlighted more of the Scripture quotation than I intended to (And Cain knew his wife;) And if...

After ALL these years, you STILL CANNOT ANSWER basic questions; but I must say you've gotten much better at ATTEMPTED MISDIRECTION & PROJECTION!

And it certainly DOESN'T say Otherwise; so then my believing there were ONLY 3 Scripturally Verifiable people seems more plausible than your UN-Scriptural speculation that there were more at that time huh. Scripture DOES NOT say that "Cain took his wife with him when he left the region Adam and...

NOWHERE in ALL of Scripture is CHRIST/JESUS/THE WORD [of GOD] referred to as "FIRST creation"; Where then do you get that MADE-UP NON-Scriptural phrase and then ascribe it to THE WORD [of GOD] made flesh (John 1:14) which came forth from [out of] THE FATHER / THE ETERNAL GOD?

:cool:

Point is, NOWHERE in Job 38 is the word "Creation" stated, although GOD rhetorically ask Job where he had been when HE laid out Creation's foundation; but that aside, if the morning stars had been around long enough to have sang together, why do you believe there could not have been a long...

So then, who/what (in Job 38) were they, if they were not men?

If it "does not always mean men", what/WHO else could it mean? Where in Scripture does it mean anything/anyone else?

If you say so:eek:. So then, having taken 1Cor. 15:45 (The first man Adam was made a living soul; the last Adam was made a quickening spirit.) out of its intended context as a positional comparison rather than a chronology proof, you NOW have no other Scripture whatsoever to support your belief...

Then don't just ACCUSE me! SHOW EXACTLY, the "different parts of the Bible", that you're accusing me of "confusing".

What the Bible calls him is "Adam" which is the same Hebrew word for "man"; Also, by your reasoning, JESUS CHRIST was/is "literally" the "last man"???

Great point Right Divider! Now then, consider the following: Was not the first man Adam also the first man to have [FREE] access to THE TREE of LIFE, that he (Adam) and ONLY he had been SPECIFICALLY ASSIGNED by THE LORD GOD "to keep"? This would have made Adam the first man . . . POSITIONALLY...

My assumptions are no more huge &/or UNsound than your assumptions; especially when you purport to assume what I "think"! So to clear it up for you as to what I think, based on precept upon precept, etc.: my contention is that Adam of Genesis 2 was NOT the FIRST nor the ONLY human that GOD...

It is written, "For precept must be upon precept, precept upon precept; line upon line, line upon line; here a little, and there a little: (Isaiah 28:10ff)"; The long held belief that GOD ONLY used 2 originally sinless people to begin populating the entire earth, DOES NOT stand up to "sound"...

And THE LORD GOD took the man, and put him into the garden of Eden to dress it and to keep it. (Genesis 2:15) Who is "the man" to "keep it" for/from? Adam's job is in the Garden; nowhere else; had it been THE LORD GOD would have taken Adam to the animals rather than bringing the animals to him...

Does not Scripture clearly show that Adam of Genesis 2 was NOT the ONLY Created ("formed") being that GOD made: Note "And GOD said, Let US make man in OUR IMAGE, after OUR LIKENESS: and let [t-h-e-m] have dominion over the fish of the sea, and over the fowl of the air, and over the cattle, and...

WHAT IF: 1) The Adam of Genesis 2 & 3 was not "the first man" that GOD Created; 2) Cain did not marry his sister, nor his neice, or even a cousin; 3) The "sons of God", in Genesis 6, were not Angels ('fallen' or otherwise); 4) Noah's 3 sons were Triplets; 5) It didn't take Noah 120 years to...