ECT WHY GLOSSA /TONGUES ARE NOT FOR TODAY !!

[Bright Raven]

After you absorb my previous post. But yes I cor 13:8 said so, because it had a singular purpose to unbelieving Jews, 14:20+. Whatever else was going at Corinth was supposed to stop because it was childish and non-constructive. 5 vs 10K.

Apparently something was going on that had nothing to do with the proof to Jews and no real value, and risked people saying Christians were out of their minds (insane) 14:23. Great. Just what we need.

The verse says that they will cease not that they have ceased. Try again.

 

[Interplanner]

It was written about 2000 years ago, too. Is that a factor?

The last record is ACts 19:6 and is one instance. There was nothing about it since Peter several years earlier. What trajectory does that plot? It means there'd be one small incident of it in say 20 years. Another about 40 years after that, or about 75 years after Pentecost, etc etc.

 

[oatmeal]

To have actual knowledge, you would have had to have been with Peter. Between you and me, let's not let anyone know you were there, OK?

btw, why did you skip the one historic reason I cor 14 gives? v20+. It's not for our amusement or pleasure. It was to speak to the hardest generation of Judaism there ever was. It was to make clear the mission that God wanted Gentiles to believe, Acts 9-11. The inclusion of Gentiles was so hard for Peter (!) to accept that he had to have his own world-stopping experience, the 2nd Pentecost. Even after he had been in Pentecost and seen people from every known language hear it!

The issue is inextricable from the mission to the Gentiles and was meant to prove that God wanted to bring them in. Is there any doubt of that these days?

Evidently, you do not believe that scriptures provide "actual knowledge"

Hence, you do not believe scriptures are truth.

Jesus Christ believes scripture is truth, I have actual knowledge of that!

John 17:17 Did Jesus lie? or was he being truthful?

Evidently, you reject those verses I provided about the value of speaking in tongues.

Evidently, you do not value what God values.

Maybe you will start to believe that God is wiser than you and me some day and take His word for it.

 

[oatmeal]

No, this has a historical side to it. it has to do what happened then in a situation like then, which are non-existent today.

Tongues were for an unbelieving Jew to realize that God was serious about including Gentiles. That was the sign to them--the Gentiles would hear the message in their language. There has to be the doubting Jewish person present who is convinced by it that what the OT said about the Gospel going to the Gentiles is true.

The speaker is not aware of speaking in another language. It gets changed into the recievers language in the act. That's why we have what Peter said in his normal language at Pentecost, but have the people from all over the world hearing in theirs. It was the opposite of the confusion that happened at Babel where all the languages suddenly were active as God's curse and no one could keep working.

God undid Babel at Pentecost for the sake of His Son, to honor him.

Thanks for exalting your opinion above the word of God.

Too bad you cannot back up your opinions with scripture.

I Corinthians 14:5 is still the commandment of God, whether you like it or not, whether you believe it or not, whether you are interested in spiritual power or not

 

[Interplanner]

Which item do you think is not supported?

"They each heard in their own language..." Acts 2

Anyone reading Acts 9-11 will see that the subject is not tongues. Tongues there show Peter that he had misconceptions about including Gentiles. They happen because God wanted to make that point. The sheet vision was not enough! Paul validates that this is what tongues were for in I Cor 14:21, and there simply were fewer and fewer situations like it, the last being Acts 19, years after Peter and Cornelius.

In I Cor 14:5 Paul meant 'if it will help an unbelieving Jewish person realize that God works among the nations, I would like it to happen to them.' Because that was the purpose of it throughout the manifestations of it.

Granted there seems to be something else going on at Corinth that lacks this purpose, yet Paul corrects them with v21 and its quote from Isaiah and Deut.

If God was just trying to communicate to minor languages, there would be no need for Bible translation missionaries. But that was not the intention. The intention was to show to unbelieving Jews that the prophecies of God bring the nations to faith were true indeed and in motion in the Gospel era.

 

[oatmeal]

Which item do you think is not supported?

"They each heard in their own language..." Acts 2

Anyone reading Acts 9-11 will see that the subject is not tongues. Tongues there show Peter that he had misconceptions about including Gentiles. They happen because God wanted to make that point. The sheet vision was not enough! Paul validates that this is what tongues were for in I Cor 14:21, and there simply were fewer and fewer situations like it, the last being Acts 19, years after Peter and Cornelius.

In I Cor 14:5 Paul meant 'if it will help an unbelieving Jewish person realize that God works among the nations, I would like it to happen to them.' Because that was the purpose of it throughout the manifestations of it.

Granted there seems to be something else going on at Corinth that lacks this purpose, yet Paul corrects them with v21 and its quote from Isaiah and Deut.

If God was just trying to communicate to minor languages, there would be no need for Bible translation missionaries. But that was not the intention. The intention was to show to unbelieving Jews that the prophecies of God bring the nations to faith were true indeed and in motion in the Gospel era.

Which one of the following verses do you object to?

Acts 2:11 Speaking in tongues is speaking the wonderful works of God

Acts 10:46 Speaking in tongues is magnifying God

I Corinthians 14:4 Speaking in tongues is for the spiritual edification of the one speaking in tongues. To edify is to build up, strengthen

I Corinthians 14:2 Speaking in tongues is speaking to God, speaking what? mysteries or divine secrets

I Corinthians 14:16-17 Speaking in tongues is to give thanks well to God

that is a few of the reasons that God tells us from scripture, why God designed and set up the manifestation of speaking in tongues.

I want those results in my life, so I speak in tongues.

Speaking in tongues is a manifestation of the gift of holy spirit that is given to all that do Romans 10:9-10

I Corinthians 12:7-11

But the manifestation of the Spirit is given to every man to profit withal.

8 For to one is given by the Spirit the word of wisdom; to another the word of knowledge by the same Spirit;

9 To another faith by the same Spirit; to another the gifts of healing by the same Spirit;

10 To another the working of miracles; to another prophecy; to another discerning of spirits; to another divers kinds of tongues; to another the interpretation of tongues:

11 But all these worketh that one and the selfsame Spirit, dividing to every man severally as he will.

The manifestation of the spirit has nine ways to profit withal included in it.

 

[Interplanner]

ARe there Gentiles who need the Gospel when you do? Is there an unbelieving follower of Judaism who doubts that the Gentiles are supposed to get the Gospel? Tongues are for him, so that he will get the point. These two questions are also involved in every reference to tongues, even though the Corinthian form seems to drift into personal use for a moment.

You can't just go generate your own experiential use when there is history to it. One major event and two minor ones resonate the same thing: it is inseparable from the sign that unwilling Jews needed to see to realize that Gentiles could be included.