Jesus did not teach the old law, he taught the new law for the new covenant.
Jesus taught to have faith in him.
He taught that we have to go through him to get to the Father.
Those things are not the old law.
The old law was proclaimed until John the baptizer.
The new law is that Jesus would be the Lamb of God who takes away the sins of the world. That is not the old law.
Jesus taught no more eye for eye and tooth for tooth.
He taught against the divorces that were allowed in the old law.
He said he would give the saved the Holy Spirit.
He taught that he forgives sins.
Jesus taught the new law.
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Originally posted by JudgeRightly View PostYou couldn't have put them in order?
Taking verses out of their context is one thing, but randomizing their order?
It's no wonder you can't understand the Bible properly, because to you it's just a mishmash of verses.
But now we have been delivered from the law, having died to what we were held by, so that we should serve in the newness of the Spirit and not in the oldness of the letter. - Romans 7:6 http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/...6&version=NKJV
Nope.
No "law of the Spirit."
who also made us sufficient as ministers of the new covenant, not of the letter but of the Spirit; for the letter kills, but the Spirit gives life. - 2 Corinthians 3:6 http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/...6&version=NKJV
Nope.
No "law of the Spirit."
Do we then make void the law through faith? Certainly not! On the contrary, we establish the law. - Romans 3:31 http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/...1&version=NKJV
Nope.
No "law of the Spirit" there, either.
Where is boasting then? It is excluded. By what law? Of works? No, but by the law of faith.Therefore we conclude that a man is justified by faith apart from the deeds of the law. - Romans 3:27-28 http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/...8&version=NKJV
Nope. No "law of the Spirit."
And just like Romans 8:2, "law of faith" is a figure of speech.
“Behold, the days are coming, says the Lord, when I will make a new covenant with the house of Israel and with the house of Judah—not according to the covenant that I made with their fathers in the day that I took them by the hand to lead them out of the land of Egypt, My covenant which they broke, though I was a husband to them, says the Lord.But this is the covenant that I will make with the house of Israel after those days, says the Lord: I will put My law in their minds, and write it on their hearts; and I will be their God, and they shall be My people.No more shall every man teach his neighbor, and every man his brother, saying, ‘Know the Lord,’ for they all shall know Me, from the least of them to the greatest of them, says the Lord . For I will forgive their iniquity, and their sin I will remember no more.” - Jeremiah 31:31-34 http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/...4&version=NKJV
No "law of the Spirit."
This is speaking of the covenant God will make with Israel, the people of, you guessed it, the law.
But he who looks into the perfect law of liberty and continues in it, and is not a forgetful hearer but a doer of the work, this one will be blessed in what he does. - James 1:25 http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/...5&version=NKJV
No "law of the Spirit."
And in fact, maybe you should read the first verse in James:
James, a bondservant of God and of the Lord Jesus Christ, To the twelve tribes which are scattered abroad: Greetings. - James 1:1 http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/...1&version=NKJV
Yup. That's right. ISRAEL.
Not the "law of the Spirit."
You seem to simply choose the continually sin. You are free to do so; but don't think you won't be judged according to your word and deed.
And I didnt randomize anything. I searched Spirit of the law and posted clear references about it.
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Originally posted by popsthebuilder1 View PostCare for the scripture?
Taking verses out of their context is one thing, but randomizing their order?
It's no wonder you can't understand the Bible properly, because to you it's just a mishmash of verses.
Romans 7:6
Nope.
No "law of the Spirit."
2 Corinthians 3:6
Nope.
No "law of the Spirit."
Romans 3: 31
Nope.
No "law of the Spirit" there, either.
Romans 3: 27
Nope. No "law of the Spirit."
And just like Romans 8:2, "law of faith" is a figure of speech.
Jeremiah 31: 31-34
No "law of the Spirit."
This is speaking of the covenant God will make with Israel, the people of, you guessed it, the law.
James 1: 25
No "law of the Spirit."
And in fact, maybe you should read the first verse in James:
James, a bondservant of God and of the Lord Jesus Christ, To the twelve tribes which are scattered abroad: Greetings. - James 1:1 http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/...1&version=NKJV
Yup. That's right. ISRAEL.
What is circumcision of the heart to you?
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Originally posted by JudgeRightly View PostThere is no such thing.
Romans 7:6
2 Corinthians 3:6
Romans 3: 31
Romans 3: 27
Jeremiah 31: 31-34
James 1: 25
What is circumcision of the heart to you?
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Originally posted by JudgeRightly View PostThere is no such thing.
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Originally posted by popsthebuilder1 View PostWhat about the Law of the SPIRIT?
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Originally posted by Cntrysner View PostGrace and law coexisted or none could be saved and Jesus did not have to say the word grace because he embodied grace for all to see. You can't nullify the existence or the display of God's grace under the law. It is far better to display a truth than speak a word.
Jesus was the Word of grace!
Edit..
Jesus did condemn with the law and did not say it was for eternal security from the law. Jesus died to remove the law!
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Originally posted by genuineoriginal View PostThat is why the evidence provided by the acts of believers is so important.Preach the Gospel at all times. Use words if necessary.
~St. Francis of Assisi
Do you not think that the gospel provides its own evidence that it is true?
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Originally posted by Right Divider View PostBecause He didn't "teach it"... He taught the law. (eg. Matt 23:1-3)
Jesus was the Word of grace!
Edit..
Jesus did condemn with the law and did not say it was for eternal security from the law. Jesus died to remove the law!
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Originally posted by genuineoriginal View PostNot at all.
If you think I am mistaken, you really don't know the Bible.
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Originally posted by Cntrysner View PostYou are sadly mistaken about the most important message
If you think I am mistaken, you really don't know the Bible.
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Greetings Right Divider and Cntrysner,Originally posted by Right Divider View PostIf the Lord Jesus Christ was preaching grace, He would have used the word.Originally posted by Cntrysner View PostJoh 1:17 For the law was given by Moses, but grace and truth came by Jesus Christ.Originally posted by Right Divider View PostThat is NOT Jesus speaking.Originally posted by Cntrysner View Post....but Jesus was the Word and embodiment of grace.Originally posted by Right Divider View PostThat is irrelevant to the point that I made. Jesus never preached grace during His earthly ministry.... period.Originally posted by Cntrysner View PostSo, why is it important to you that he did not say the word grace when he taught it and displayed it for all to see?Originally posted by Right Divider View PostBecause He didn't "teach it"... He taught the law. (eg. Matt 23:1-3)
Yes, there is a development between the preaching and teaching during the ministry of Jesus and the preaching by Peter, Philip and Paul after the death and the resurrection of Jesus:
Luke 8:1 (KJV): And it came to pass afterward, that he went throughout every city and village, preaching and shewing the glad tidings of the kingdom of God: and the twelve were with him,
Acts 8:5–6,12 (KJV): 5 Then Philip went down to the city of Samaria, and preached Christ unto them. 6 And the people with one accord gave heed unto those things which Philip spake, hearing and seeing the miracles which he did. 7 12 But when they believed Philip preaching the things concerning the kingdom of God, and the name of Jesus Christ, they were baptized, both men and women.
What has developed is that Jesus revealed “grace and truth” and salvation was now revealed to be in and through the Name of Jesus Christ, and this includes belief in the death and resurrection of Christ and baptism by water into His Name. The “things concerning the Kingdom of God” has not changed from Luke 8:1 to Acts 8:12, but possibly Jesus added more details when he spoke to the Apostles after the resurrection. Jesus was not teaching them a different gospel.
Acts 1:3 (KJV): To whom also he shewed himself alive after his passion by many infallible proofs, being seen of them forty days, and speaking of the things pertaining to the kingdom of God:
Kind regards
Trevor
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Originally posted by Cntrysner View PostSo, why is it important to you that he did not say the word grace when he taught it and displayed it for all to see?
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Originally posted by Right Divider View PostThat is irrelevant to the point that I made. Jesus never preached grace during His earthly ministry.... period.
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Originally posted by Cntrysner View Post....but Jesus was the Word and embodiment of grace.
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