Paul taught about the grace of God, but Jesus Christ did not.

oatmeal

Well-known member
Luke 2:40 And the child grew, and waxed strong in spirit, filled with wisdom: and the grace of God was upon him.

John 1:14 And the Word was made flesh, and dwelt among us, (and we beheld his glory, the glory as of the only begotten of the Father,) full of grace and truth.

John 1:16 And of his fulness have all we received, and grace for grace.

John 1:17 For the law was given by Moses, but grace and truth came by Jesus Christ.

Grace came by Jesus Christ.

Why didn't Jesus teach about the grace of God?

Because the law, not grace defined the gospel period.

Jesus Christ was busy fulfilling the law so that grace could come

It did not come until all was fulfilled and then on the day of Pentecost, grace came.

Believers could now receive the gift of eternal life/holy spirit/salvation without doing the works of the law.

The criteria for receiving salvation, now a gift, no longer of works, was not doing the law but by confessing with the mouth the lord Jesus and believing in the heart that God raised him from the dead.

Romans 10:9-10

This age of grace in which we now live was not available until Jesus Christ fulfilled all the requirements to put the law behind us and to institute grace.

Pretty cool, eh?
 

Jerry Shugart

Well-known member
This age of grace in which we now live was not available until Jesus Christ fulfilled all the requirements to put the law behind us and to institute grace.

Then why does Paul state that Abraham was saved on the principle of grace?:

"What shall we say then that Abraham our father, as pertaining to the flesh, hath found? For if Abraham were justified by works, he hath whereof to glory; but not before God. For what saith the scripture? Abraham believed God, and it was counted unto him for righteousness. Now to him that worketh is the reward not reckoned of grace, but of debt" (Ro.4:1-4).​
 

oatmeal

Well-known member
Then why does Paul state that Abraham was saved on the principle of grace?:

"What shall we say then that Abraham our father, as pertaining to the flesh, hath found? For if Abraham were justified by works, he hath whereof to glory; but not before God. For what saith the scripture? Abraham believed God, and it was counted unto him for righteousness. Now to him that worketh is the reward not reckoned of grace, but of debt" (Ro.4:1-4).​

Because it was grace on the behalf of Abraham

God's grace was first demonstrated in Genesis 1:1 and continues through to Revelation 22:21, but no administration, not paradise, not the patriarchal, not the law, not the gospel period, were founded solely on the grace of God as is our age of grace

Jesus Christ was of course gracious, but he was still under the law, not grace as we are, in fulfilling that law.

By his fulfilling that law, we have the joy, the privilege, the right and responsibility to live in that grace that Jesus Christ made available to us by his earthly ministry
 

Jerry Shugart

Well-known member
Jesus Christ was of course gracious, but he was still under the law, not grace as we are, in fulfilling that law.

The saved who lived under the law were saved by grace through faith alone. Paul wrote the following about that:

"Therefore it is of faith, that it might be by grace; to the end the promise might be sure to all the seed; not to that only which is of the law, but to that also which is of the faith of Abraham; who is the father of us all" (Ro.4:16).​

Surely you will not deny the following words of the Lord Jesus where He told the Jews who lived under the law that they received everlasting life by faith alone:

"Verily, verily, I say unto you, He that believeth on me hath everlasting life" (Jn.6:47).​
 

oatmeal

Well-known member
The saved who lived under the law were saved by grace through faith alone. Paul wrote the following about that:

"Therefore it is of faith, that it might be by grace; to the end the promise might be sure to all the seed; not to that only which is of the law, but to that also which is of the faith of Abraham; who is the father of us all" (Ro.4:16).​

Surely you will not deny the following words of the Lord Jesus where He told the Jews who lived under the law that they received everlasting life by faith alone:

"Verily, verily, I say unto you, He that believeth on me hath everlasting life" (Jn.6:47).​

He most certainly said what the Father told him to say and therefore that statement, as you rightly point out, to the Jews who lived under the law.

Since Jesus was not a minister to the Gentiles but to the lost sheep of the house of Israel was he sent, he spoke only of those things that pertained to the lost sheep of the house of Israel

After Jesus' ascension, and the giving of the gift of pneuman hagion on the day of Pentecost, Paul ended up being the man to whom God revealed the truths regarding the age of grace.

For those Judeans and Gentiles that are in this age of grace, the way, the requirements to believe that put them into the church of God, (I Corinthians 10:32) is the two listed in Romans 10:9-10. Specifically, when a person confesses with his mouth the lord Jesus and believe in his heart that God raised him from the dead, at that moment they are saved, that is, they received the gift of salvation/holy spirit/eternal life and are now in the church of God, the body of Christ with Christ as the head of the body
 

Jerry Shugart

Well-known member
After Jesus' ascension, and the giving of the gift of pneuman hagion on the day of Pentecost, Paul ended up being the man to whom God revealed the truths regarding the age of grace.

I can't find any Scriptures which speak of an "age" of grace. What distinguished that age from any other age?
 

oatmeal

Well-known member
I can't find any Scriptures which speak of an "age" of grace. What distinguished that age from any other age?

Technically you are right. That phrase is not literally found in scripture . However reading and understanding passages like Ephesians 3:2-9, we see that God speaks of the dispensation of grace which is set in contrast to other ages.

This dispensation of grace is referred to as the fellowship of the mystery which was hid in God and thus in those other ages was not made known unto the sons of men in those other ages.

This dispensation of grace or fellowship of the mystery was of such importance and significance that God hid it from the beginning of the world until the the completed works of his son made the implementation of this dispensation of grace possible .

Without Jesus fulfilling the law we would not be living in this dispensation of grace but under the law or dispensation of the other ages
 

Jerry Shugart

Well-known member
Technically you are right. That phrase is not literally found in scripture . However reading and understanding passages like Ephesians 3:2-9, we see that God speaks of the dispensation of grace which is set in contrast to other ages.

When do you think that the dispensation of grace began and please provide evidence from the Scriptures which supports your answer.
 

oatmeal

Well-known member
When do you think that the dispensation of grace began and please provide evidence from the Scriptures which supports your answer.

The promise of the Father was given on the day of Pentecost. This is described in Acts 2:4. This is when they were ended with power from on high. Baptized in pneuma hagion.

The shedding forth of this spiritual power was the start.

Peter's sermon and subsequent teachings introduce this age of grace. However God revealed what He had hidden for ages and generations not immediately and fully in one moment of time but over time.

This gradual revelation culminated with the revelation of this mystery to the apostle Paul which we can understand when we read.

I anticipate that my references to passages are not unfamiliar to you.

If you wish specific verses there are far to many for me to list and expound.

See Acts through Jude
 

oatmeal

Well-known member
The Messiah is grace and truth personified.

Yes. Grace and truth came by Jesus Christ even as the law came by Moses.

Jesus did not teach that grace for he had to fulfill the law for it to become available.

Paul was the apostle that wrote of it and taught it most fully
 

DAN P

Well-known member
Then why does Paul state that Abraham was saved on the principle of grace?:

"What shall we say then that Abraham our father, as pertaining to the flesh, hath found? For if Abraham were justified by works, he hath whereof to glory; but not before God. For what saith the scripture? Abraham believed God, and it was counted unto him for righteousness. Now to him that worketh is the reward not reckoned of grace, but of debt" (Ro.4:1-4).​

Hi Jerry and Heb 11:9 , ABRAM was saved by FAITH !!

dan p
 

Truster

New member
Yes. Grace and truth came by Jesus Christ even as the law came by Moses.

Jesus did not teach that grace for he had to fulfill the law for it to become available.

Paul was the apostle that wrote of it and taught it most fully

Nonsense, complete and utter nonsense.
 

Jerry Shugart

Well-known member
Hi Jerry and Heb 11:9 , ABRAM was saved by FAITH !!

He received the righteousness of God by faith and it was on the principle of grace:

"Abraham believed God, and it was counted unto him for righteousness. Now to him that worketh is the reward not reckoned of grace, but of debt"
(Ro.4:1-4).​
 

oatmeal

Well-known member
Please show me where Peter introduced the age of grace in his Pentecostal sermon.

When we read Acts 2 we do not find Peter teaching that they must keep the law to the end to receive the gift of or from the Holy Spirit.

But he teaches men to repent(have a change of heart) and to be baptized in water??? No. No. No. Not in water as John the B did in the gospel period where they still lived under the law. They were to be baptized in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of sins. They were to be cleansed not by water but by the accomplished works of Jesus Christ.

Something had definitely changed things had vastly improved over what had been.

Who was Peter talking to?

Men and brethren who were at the feast because the law required it.

Were they going to receive the gift of the Holy Spirit because they kept the law?.

No. No doubt as faithful adherents to the law they had been to the three yearly feasts faithfully for years.

Was it from doing the law that they would be saved?

No. No. No.

Acts 2:38.

What did they have to do?

The law? No. No. No. A thousand times No.

Repent. Have a change of heart.

From what? From their mindset of doing the law for righteousness

To what realizing and believing on Jesus whom God had made both lord and Christ, the anointed one.

Salvation was no longer dependent on doing the law but believing that Jesus is both lord and the anointed one and that God had raised him from the dead.

Both of these elements were clearly taught by Peter. These two and only two requirements were plainly stated by Paul by revelation in Romans 10:9-10.

Salvation was no longer dependent on being faithful to doing the law but upon grace

Ephesians 2:8-9.

Those who met those two requirements were the ones who should be saved and were saved. Acts 2:47
 

Jerry Shugart

Well-known member
Salvation was no longer dependent on being faithful to doing the law but upon grace.

The truth that the Jews who lived under the law were saved apart from the law was made known to them more than three years before the day of Pentecost, as witnessed by the following words of the Lord Jesus which He spoke to them:

"Verily, verily, I say unto you, He that believeth on me hath everlasting life"
(Jn.6:47).​

"It is the spirit that quickeneth; the flesh profiteth nothing: the words that I speak unto you, they are spirit, and they are life" (Jn.6:63).​

Where is your evidence that a so-called "age" of grace began on the day of Pentecost?
 

eleos

New member
Favor and grace mean the same thing and was in the OT and the NT ... grace (favor) is not something "new" and specific to the new testament. Go look up the greek and hebrew for grace and favor. Here's a place you can go do that. www.biblehub.com
 
Top