Why men won't marry you

Traditio

BANNED
Banned
We've reached an impasse.

:e4e:

With all due respect, once again, you've simply misunderstood me. The question is:

"Is it, in principle, permissible for the State to permit a husband to beat his wife to death in such and such circumstances?"

Answering "it's not legal according to U.S. law" doesn't answer the question of whether or not such a thing justly could be law.

In support of denying this (i.e., that such a thing could not justly be a law), you've proposed your reading of the Old and New Testaments.

Well, ok. Your interpretation is duly noted. I'm not fully convinced that what you are saying is particularly practical, realistic or coherent, but fine. Let your views be noted.

What I'm asking is this:

Can you present a non-theological argument that the State could not permit what I have described in principle? Granted that it currently is not legal, is it a necessity of justice that it not be legal?

I have a feeling that your general argument here is simply as follows:

1. There is one and precisely one due punishment for adultery (a premise shown in theology).
2. This punishment may not be administered (a premise claimed to be shown in theology).
3. Therefore, no punishment, whether the one I've proposed or the one that Moses prescribed may justly be made law.

:think:

Perhaps my request is an unfair one, given that I appealed to the Mosaic Law to establish that death is, at least in principle, a just penalty for adultery.

Granted that I did that, if you then assert that an alternative punishment is acceptable, but further deny that the original punishment is still permissible, then your conclusion obtains: what I have proposed is unjust in principle (since it could be prescribed neither by Moses nor by anyone else).

Fair enough.

How about this:

What if I offered an alternative proof of the merit of at least certain classes of adulterers to die which does not depend upon theological premises?
 

elohiym

Well-known member
Can you present a non-theological argument that the State could not permit what I have described in principle? Granted that it currently is not legal, is it a necessity of justice that it not be legal?

I might be able to make an argument, but since God exists I don't need to make a non-theological argument to defeat your argument. :p

Granted that I did that, if you then assert that an alternative punishment is acceptable, but further deny that the original punishment is still permissible, then your conclusion obtains: what I have proposed is unjust in principle (since it could be prescribed neither by Moses nor by anyone else).

Fair enough.

:e4e:


How about this:

What if I offered an alternative proof of the merit of at least certain classes of adulterers to die which does not depend upon theological premises?

We live in a world where God exists, not Platopia.
 

Traditio

BANNED
Banned
I might be able to make an argument, but since God exists I don't need to make a non-theological argument to defeat your argument. :p

We live in a world where God exists, not Plutopia.

Ouch! [Also, I think you were looking for "Platonopolis."]

Furthermore, even if I gave an argument for the intrinsic proportion between death and adultery, you've basically already admitted that. You're simply denying that, in fact, this penalty justly may be meted out, in effect, "because God said so." Nor, even if I gave such an argument, would it indicate, even if I proved my case, that this particular form of killing the adulteress and this particular agent of killing the adulteress is suitable.

Yes, I can see how in order to reach any progress in the debate, I'd have to succumb to your insistence that we interpret scripture. :noid:

Either that, or I would have to go into an extended philosophical disquisition on the role of the State, on the role of punishment, etc. in order rationally to circumvent your interpretation.

Fair enough.
 

ok doser

lifeguard at the cement pond
Good for your ex wife for getting the hell away from you and good for any lawyer that had her win any case against you in turn. I'm not surprised in the slightest if she had an affair with someone if she was shackled to you. Who could blame her?

Knob.



there there artie, my little emotional friend


let it all out, you'll feel better
 

ClimateSanity

New member
there there artie, my little emotional friend


let it all out, you'll feel better

You were making a joke and showing how adults can be very much like children. Your comment was intended to provoke outrage in him and others like him.

You are not really in support of the legal right of a husband to beat his wife to death I'd be willing to wager. You don't even attempt to defend yourself against this implied charge in arties post because you enjoy watching his outrage.

If I am incorrect in any of my statements, please let me know.
 

elohiym

Well-known member
Ouch! [Also, I think you were looking for "Platonopolis."]

I like Platopia better.

Yes, I can see how in order to reach any progress in the debate, I'd have to succumb to your insistence that we interpret scripture. :noid:

If your argument contains premises about the Law of Moses and you cite Aquinas and Augustine, we are forced to interpret scripture.

Either that, or I would have to go into an extended philosophical disquisition on the role of the State, on the role of punishment, etc. in order rationally to circumvent your interpretation.

Since I am a believer, your argument would be wasted on me.
 

1PeaceMaker

New member
Yes, I can see how in order to reach any progress in the debate, I'd have to succumb to your insistence that we interpret scripture. :noid:

Either that, or I would have to go into an extended philosophical disquisition on the role of the State, on the role of punishment, etc. in order rationally to circumvent your interpretation.

How about we put the two ideas together in a new way? See my reply to you in my thread, here; http://www.theologyonline.com/forums/showpost.php?p=4614193&postcount=62
 

WizardofOz

New member
I do understand and agree with trad's argument

That's all he really wants. He doesn't even believe in a lot of the views he argues in favor of. He just wants to debate for the sake of it. That's fine with me as long as he states as much.

Playing devil's advocate can make for interesting conversations. :devil:

Isn't that right? ;)
 

Town Heretic

Out of Order
Hall of Fame
"Is it, in principle, permissible for the State to permit a husband to beat his wife to death in such and such circumstances?"
Just spit-balling, but...

No. It is only permissible to use lethal force in the defense of your life and only then if your apprehension and that use is reasonable. Our society, in law, is established upon the foundation that we are born with certain rights which may not be abrogated save by necessity (the balancing of rights among individuals) and the willful violation of those rights by another which requires punishment where prevention has failed. The punishment advanced is the least cruel infringement upon right that we can envision while still carrying the punitive weight of social/legal censure.

So we do not punish a batterer by bending our ethic to batter him. Instead, we remove him from the population of law abiding citizens and place him in a controlled environment which restricts his liberty in the hope that this relative isolation and selective infringement/diminishing of right will promote reflection and be sufficiently encumbering that he or she will seek to avoid repeating the misconduct once released into the larger compact again and will reconsider the choices made that necessitated social/legal action.

The husband, in entering into a contract with his wife under the seal of state, is entitled to remedies for the violation of that contract. It can be abrogated with prejudice, offspring of the union can be fully vested in his care with significant restrictions relating to visitation implemented. He will then be entitled to ongoing payments of child support from the offending party. He is entitled to a court determined but greater distribution of the collective assets of the marriage in most jurisdictions and he may have recourse, civilly, against the party acting to damage the marital estate. He may even have a case for alimony.

So, he can be freed of legal obligation, receive punitive damages in the form of goods and monies, be awarded sole custody of children and receive court ordered assistance from the other party. He can restrict access to those children by legal writ and can sue the interloping party, where applicable, civilly for damages.

But he has no right to her person. He cannot take possession of it and violate her rights to that integrity of self any more than he could a stranger. There is nothing in a cruel remedy, as a value, that rises to the level of the value we place on the fundamental right to the integrity of our person.
 

ok doser

lifeguard at the cement pond
... we remove him from the population of law abiding citizens and place him in a controlled environment which restricts his liberty in the hope that this relative isolation and selective infringement/diminishing of right will promote reflection and be sufficiently encumbering that he or she will seek to avoid repeating the misconduct once released into the larger compact again and will reconsider the choices made that necessitated social/legal action.

which is contrary to scripture


But he has no right to her person.

which is also contrary to scripture
 

Traditio

BANNED
Banned
No. It is only permissible to use lethal force in the defense of your life and only then if your apprehension and that use is reasonable. Our society, in law, is established upon the foundation that we are born with certain rights which may not be abrogated save by necessity (the balancing of rights among individuals) and the willful violation of those rights by another which requires punishment where prevention has failed.

Several points:

1. You're answering a question other than the one I asked. "It's illegal" or "Our society is governed by these principles" is not an answer to the question: "Could any society in principle legislate this as a just law" or "Could our society have different laws and those laws still be just?"

2. In point of fact, you are simply wrong. Even our society recognizes that it is permissible to kill someone other than in strict self defense. Consider the death penalty.

3. Insofar as we are talking about a private individual, my views on this are stronger than yours, probably. I don't even think it's permissible to intend to kill someone in self defense, at least, qua private individual. This is the view of St. Augustine and of St. Thomas Aquinas. You may use potentially lethal force to defend yourself, but you cannot intend to kill. Only the State can do that.

My question is whether the State can "deputize," so to speak, by law the offended spouse to exact due vengeance.

4. You are likely to keep talking about the "values" our society is based on, but I'd much prefer simply to talk about justice, i.e., that whereby each is given according to his due, and simply ask whether the woman in question deserves to be beaten, and if she does, whether her desert for a beating rises to the level of "deserves to be beaten to death."

If you say "no" then I'll point to the Old Law, and ask you why you think Moses legislated unjustly in the case of adultery. You'll insist, of course, that you are not "under the law," or whatever it is that protestants insist on repeating. I'll not argue the point, but simply point out that, nonetheless, the citizens of ancient Israel and Judea were under the law, and I'll ask whether it was a just law for that people.

The punishment advanced is the least cruel infringement upon right that we can envision while still carrying the punitive weight of social/legal censure.

Again, what about the death penalty? Furthermore, let us grant that, according to "the principles of our compact," you are correct, and the death penalty's abolition reasonably follows on those principles. Nonetheless, are only those principles just? If our society didn't follow that principle, and instead decided to punish criminals in a way exactly proportionate to their crime, would that be unjust? [Hint: the word "proportionate" gives away the answer and runs contrary to what you are saying...unless, of course, you insist that "the least severe" and "proportionate" exactly coincide...but I doubt that even you would claim this.]

So we do not punish a batterer by bending our ethic to batter him.

Is it intrinsically unjust to beat a batterer? If our society did flog such a person, would that be unjust?

I certainly don't think so.

But he has no right to her person.

Legally speaking, this may be what is enshrined in US law. In point of fact, it's simply wrong. The marital contract by its very nature implies a right to the person of one's spouse...thus the so called "marital debt," the moral prohibition on adultery, etc.

He cannot take possession of it and violate her rights to that integrity of self any more than he could a stranger.

As always between you and me, the discussion comes down to a completely different conception of "rights." I don't believe in your rights, TH. I think that your rights are a groundless modern invention. I don't want to talk about rights. Let us simply talk about "the right." And I'll ask you what is the right, objectively speaking, of a woman who has done the things I've described, who has the kind of character that I have described. But to speak of "the right" for this woman is simply to ask what, objectively speaking, she deserves.

And I'll answer: "Death."
 

Town Heretic

Out of Order
Hall of Fame
You're answering a question other than the one I asked...
I was answering on the secular challenge. It begins with the founding principle. Otherwise you aren't really asking anything more than can a social order found itself on rational principles at odds with our own. Of course, because it can then define its own terms.

...Even our society recognizes that it is permissible to kill someone other than in strict self defense. Consider the death penalty.
Most rules have at least the appearance of an exception while remaining what they are. Some jurisdictions allow for and other's deny the death penalty. The larger compact permits it within strict boundaries. Those boundaries are that the administration cannot be cruel and unusual, meaning the punishment cannot permit torture and/or deliberately degrading punishment.

Among the arguments from necessity that make for the DP exception is that someone who has taken from another that foundational right to be cannot be entrusted with his own life for fear of compounding the act. Or, in essence, an extension of the argument for self-defense as extrapolated to include others.

I don't even think it's permissible to intend to kill someone in self defense, at least, qua private individual.
It is absent your ability to disable with sufficient certainty of protecting your life. And that's a hard call for anyone to make without an inordinate skill level in administering violence, even with calm and time, neither of which tend to be present in the act and moment.

My question is whether the State can "deputize," so to speak, by law the offended spouse to exact due vengeance.
I'd say, without even approaching the penalty, that it would be an easy thing to argue against, making a party to an action, essentially, a judge in the matter. Most professions recognize the problem of even positive emotional entanglements and their impact on performance and judgment.

You are likely to keep talking about the "values" our society is based on, but I'd much prefer simply to talk about justice,
That would be a value, shared or not. The rest is just how we reason in support of the value.

i.e., that whereby each is given according to his due, and simply ask whether the woman in question deserves to be beaten, and if she does, whether her desert for a beating rises to the level of "deserves to be beaten to death."
It's just that I quietly enjoy my property and person without unlawful interference. It's just that someone who attempts to abrogate my right be punished. But equating a fiscal or emotional harm with the physical is inherently subjective and arbitrary. It invites disparity and injustice.

If you say "no" then I'll point to the Old Law and ask you why you think Moses legislated unjustly in the case of adultery.
I'm not obliged to judge a man who lived in a time without any number of advantages we enjoy today that could have afforded him a greater freedom in choosing. It's not fair to him and it's not relevant to me.

You'll insist, of course, that you are not "under the law," or whatever it is that protestants insist on repeating.
I'm even less compelled by your Catholic snobbery, by which I mean your and not some inherent Catholic flaw, than I am by the degree which it blinds you, including its impact on your grammar. But no, I am not living under the Mosaic compact. Consider this my answer on part two, omitted.

...If our society didn't follow that principle, and instead decided to punish criminals in a way exactly proportionate to their crime, would that be unjust?
The problem with proportional is that it can't be objectively arrived at outside of the literal. And even that has problems. Is it the money I steal from you or the damages caused by the theft? We attempt to make the punishment fit the crime in terms of the severity of deprivation (time) of rights, but when you seek to move beyond that into some literal approximation it's throwing darts in the dark. That's not really justice.

Is it intrinsically unjust to beat a batterer?
Yes. The easiest illustration would be found in ordering the rape of a rapist. If we find an action so vile that we make it a violation of law then to return the injury with a likened action is to reduce the state, however we justify it, to the same part as the violator. This is another argument against the DP, though as I noted there are more than a few arguments for it that move the boundaries of discussion beyond what we're examining here.

...The marital contract by its very nature implies a right to the person of one's spouse...thus the so called "marital debt," the moral prohibition on adultery, etc
Rather, the marital relationship opens both parties to responsibilities which they may or may not choose to fulfill and which, depending on the nature and weight of those choices, may lead to the abrogation of the contract. So you may have a reasonable expectation of marital relations. You may use the routine denial of that expectation as a foundation for ending the contract, but you at no point are permitted to subjugate her rights as an individual to your own. You are not entitled to violate her because you feel cheated.

...I don't want to talk about rights.
Then you don't really want to talk about the issue, only talk about how you mean to justify what could not be reasonably justified within the context of rights. Why should that interest me? Feel any way you like about it. Determine the rights of your own inner kingdom and predicate them on whatever suits you, so long as you don't attempt to act upon them in relation to another.

Our consciences are our own.

Let us simply talk about "the right." And I'll ask you what is the right, objectively speaking, of a woman who has done the things I've described, who has the kind of character that I have described. But to speak of "the right" for this woman is simply to ask what, objectively speaking, she deserves.
You've stepped into the moral realm, into the real of conscience and my answer is that she deserves what anyone does absent grace. My answer to her would be Christ's answer when those who accused her had fled the field. The rest, the legal portion, I've spoken to in my last.

And I'll answer: "Death."
And there was a man forgiven a great debt, who seeing another who owed him a lesser took that other man and cast him into prison until his debt was paid.

I don't envy your position, Trad. Not the least bit.
 

ok doser

lifeguard at the cement pond
The easiest illustration would be found in ordering the rape of a rapist. If we find an action so vile that we make it a violation of law then to return the injury with a likened action is to reduce the state, however we justify it, to the same point.

so you would be against the incarceration of a kidnapper?
 
Top