TOL's Sinless Members

Rusha

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I did make a light-hearted quip about his creative use of a neck bandage (in the avatar) but he was a bit grumpy with me at the time. :(

Eh, it's part of his charm. He and I really use to go at it when he first joined ... until we just agreed that I am always right. :)

:chuckle:
 

Nihilo

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Sin is the gravest slavery, as an acorn grows into a mighty oak. Whenever we cannot do what we want to do in the flesh, and whenever we do what we do not want to do in the flesh, that is slavery. So whatever we do personally that results in our own slavery, that is sin, in this sense.

The gravest sins are those that result in the gravest slavery.

Sin is not imputed to those who do so under a wide range of conditions that diminish or nullify imputability, but this only concerns spiritual, eternal punishment and not temporal punishment. For instance if you bear false witness against your neighbor but do so under duress or in confusion, then the imputability of this sin diminishes or goes away all together, but it doesn't diminish the temporal penalty for the sin. You could go to jail, or be the victim of revenge.

Sin also results in the slavery of others. We are all enslaved in many ways because of the sins of others, and not just our own.

There is a difference between a human being whose sins are washed clean, and who no longer wants to sin because he or she no longer tolerates slavery, his or her own and the slavery of others; and a human being whose sins are washed clean, but who continues to sin and does not want to stop sinning.

Along with not sinning, and thereby not continuing to contribute to slavery in the world, we can and do grant indulgences to others -- forgiveness of the temporal penalty of the sins of others. If someone for instance bears false witness against your neighbor, and thereby deserves to be punished, we can reduce the punishment or remove it all together, or not. Typically we do this when the guilty show contrition.
 

Nick M

Black Rifles Matter
LIFETIME MEMBER
Hall of Fame
Why the dramatics, Fezzik? What is faith?

So no answer to such a simple question?

James' epistle is directed at skillfully living for Christ, James' use of the term works is in the practical sense and not in a theological sense - simple.

You get that from this?

21 Was not Abraham our father justified by works when he offered Isaac his son on the altar? 22 Do you see that faith was working together with his works, and by works faith was made perfect?

You are clearly a liar and the truth is not in you. Repent. The purpose of trying to get people to think James and Paul say the same thing is to later try and show Paul preaches condemnation for lack of works.

Except James' word is so simple and clear like Jesus' messages..

Why have you perverts not rebuked her? She rejects Paul, and has the honesty to admit it.

It is a simple question. Why was it not answered? Let's try one more time.

21 Was not Abraham our father justified by works when he offered Isaac his son on the altar? 22 Do you see that faith was working together with his works, and by works faith was made perfect?

According to James, was Abraham justified by works?
 

staind.raindrop

New member
James 1

1 James, a bondservant of God and of the Lord Jesus Christ,

To the twelve tribes which are scattered abroad:

Greetings.



According to James, to whom was he writing?

James 2

21 Was not Abraham our father justified by works when he offered Isaac his son on the altar? 22 Do you see that faith was working together with his works, and by works faith was made perfect?


According to James, was Abraham justified by works? According to James, was his faith made perfect by works? These are yes/no questions. No soap box. Your life depends on it.

I see the point of your questions is to highlight that it is by faith, not works that we're saved, so i asked what is faith. I am not perverted like your negative rep comment claims, i am asking you simple questions. What is faith, and what does it matter who the books were addressed to, please?
 

intojoy

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James is not using the word works in a theological way.
His whole book is a lesson on godly living for those already saved.

Why can't you see that? Where does James say one has to work for salvation?

Faith without works is dead. So what?

James was saved by grace alone just like his Jewish compatriot Paul was. If James is writing to Jews only (which is not true ) James is also writing to Paul. Does that mean James is telling Paul to work for his salvation?

When the bible has difficult passages that seem to show a contradiction we don't write them off by saying that Paul got saved by works but Gentiles get it by grace. James is writing to already saved by grace Jewish believers including Paul. James is not writing to who Paul calls those that are not true Jews - Jews outwardly but he writes to true Jews like Paul true inwardly, the Remnant of Israel ie Peter James Paul Jude Matthew mark Luke John .

We take the difficult statement of faith without works is dead and break down the intent and theme of the writer James.

James' theme isn't salvation. It is holy living in Christ thru trials, it is living a life without hypocrisy in Christ, it is living joyfully in the midst of trials in Christ.

Sorry this knocks the wind out of your theological error concerning " Its written to the Jews"

It's written to them for us. We take what there is ( if any) that can be inclusive for us and if there is an application to be applied then we apply it to ourselves. There may or may not be one. All of the writings of the prophets wee written to Israel. Does that mean there are no applications for us?

So a Jewish believer is to count it joy when Nero nails him to a cross and sets him ablaze but a gentile believer does not need to rejoice on the same predicament?

A Jewish believer must not give special respect to a rich man over the poor but a gentile believer can?

Hahahaha
 

staind.raindrop

New member
'
Because sometimes geography plays a role, sometimes a group of people plays a role. Not everything promised to Abe for example is applicable to Christian Gentiles such as circumcision. But for Paul the act of circumcision was applicable for Timothy a Jew but not for Titus a non Jew .

Hebrews is addressed to believing Jews and what is said to this group of believers had significant generational truths and warnings that were relevant to first century Jews but not generationally relevant to 21 century Christian Gentiles.

Ok, what method do we use to distinguish the 'applicalble' truths and warnings from the 'invalid' ones?
 

MarkA

New member
it's been my experience those who think they are sinless generally aren't.

and those whom are sinless are either unaware of it or don't pay it much mind (too busy serving and praising God).
 

intojoy

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'



Ok, what method do we use to distinguish the 'applicalble' truths and warnings from the 'invalid' ones?


Well they are all valid and all true but I have to take everything that the bible says about Israel into consideration when a writer of scripture addresses them directly as does 1,2 Peter James and Hebrews. That means that these writers have a special message for the Remnant of Israel which is the title Paul gives for saved Jews, Jewish believers in Yeshua. There is nothing spiritually superior of Jewish Christians over Gentile Christians but in the material realm there is a difference. Paul for example brought Titus before James and Peter in Acts 15 to see if they thought Titus should be circumcised as a prerequisite to following Yeshua. Remember, the judaizers that followed Paul would sneak into the gentile churches after Paul left and lie to the Gentiles that they had to do this before they could follow Christ. Not only circumcision but all of the Torah. Paul would later write against this by saying that they should cut the whole thing off!

Peter and James do not have Titus circumcised but later Paul had Timothy circumcised.

So how do I apply the circumcision of Timothy vs the non circumcision of Titus? By the whole of scripture .

Paul circumcised Timothy in accordance with the Abrahamic Covenant and not with the Mosaic Covenant. Circumcision is a valid truth applicable to male Jewish Christians but not applicable to gentile Christians.

That's one example
 

staind.raindrop

New member
Well they are all valid and all true but I have to take everything that the bible says about Israel into consideration when a writer of scripture addresses them directly as does 1,2 Peter James and Hebrews. That means that these writers have a special message for the Remnant of Israel which is the title Paul gives for saved Jews, Jewish believers in Yeshua. There is nothing spiritually superior of Jewish Christians over Gentile Christians but in the material realm there is a difference. Paul for example brought Titus before James and Peter in Acts 15 to see if they thought Titus should be circumcised as a prerequisite to following Yeshua. Remember, the judaizers that followed Paul would sneak into the gentile churches after Paul left and lie to the Gentiles that they had to do this before they could follow Christ. Not only circumcision but all of the Torah. Paul would later write against this by saying that they should cut the whole thing off!

Peter and James do not have Titus circumcised but later Paul had Timothy circumcised.

So how do I apply the circumcision of Timothy vs the non circumcision of Titus? By the whole of scripture .

Paul circumcised Timothy in accordance with the Abrahamic Covenant and not with the Mosaic Covenant. Circumcision is a valid truth applicable to male Jewish Christians but not applicable to gentile Christians.

That's one example

So circumcision is still required for Jews or not?
 

Nick M

Black Rifles Matter
LIFETIME MEMBER
Hall of Fame
I see the point of your questions is to highlight that it is by faith, not works that we're saved

No it isn't. Let's try this the third time, and no more for me. Yes or no. Is James saying that Abraham was justified by works for offering up his son?
 

Nick M

Black Rifles Matter
LIFETIME MEMBER
Hall of Fame
His whole book is a lesson on godly living for those already saved.

24 You see then that a man is justified by works, and not by faith only.

You have a reason to want Paul to be aligned with the "red letters", as James is.
 

staind.raindrop

New member
No it isn't. Let's try this the third time, and no more for me. Yes or no. Is James saying that Abraham was justified by works for offering up his son?

It's clear what the scripture says. What is your point? Do i really have to re-type that the scripture uses the word faith, not the word works?
 

intojoy

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So circumcision is still required for Jews or not?


Yes. But please bear in mind that circumcision predates Moses and Torah. The reason circumcision is valid for Jews today is because the Abrahamic covenant is an everlasting covenant and an unconditional covenant. There is a major flaw in most theologians today who recognize only two covenants one being the law of Moses and the other an imaginary covenant of grace found nowhere in scripture.

There are a total of 8 co aments in the bible. 3 were made with all humanity in general; the Edenic, Adamic and Noahic, the Adamic and Noahic were both unconditional covenants and the Edenic was a conditional one; the Abrahamic, Land, Mosaic, Davidic and New Covenant were made with Israel and all but the Mosaic were unconditional. Because the Mosaic was a conditional and temporal covenant it is not right to circumcise Jews in accordance to it today because the Mosaic Law has been rendered inoperative, it is no longer the believer's rule of life, our rule of life is as you said the law of Christ.
But circumcision for Jews is required of them under the Abrahamic Covenant which is an eternal everlasting covenant.
 

intojoy

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No it isn't. Let's try this the third time, and no more for me. Yes or no. Is James saying that Abraham was justified by works for offering up his son?


Not in terms of salvation. That's ridiculous. James points out that Abraham's faith was justified by Abe's actions - Abe's faith in Jehovah was justified in that he acted on that faith but that did not justify him.
 

staind.raindrop

New member
Yes. But please bear in mind that circumcision predates Moses and Torah. The reason circumcision is valid for Jews today is because the Abrahamic covenant is an everlasting covenant and an unconditional covenant. There is a major flaw in most theologians today who recognize only two covenants one being the law of Moses and the other an imaginary covenant of grace found nowhere in scripture.

There are a total of 8 co aments in the bible. 3 were made with all humanity in general; the Edenic, Adamic and Noahic, the Adamic and Noahic were both unconditional covenants and the Edenic was a conditional one; the Abrahamic, Land, Mosaic, Davidic and New Covenant were made with Israel and all but the Mosaic were unconditional. Because the Mosaic was a conditional and temporal covenant it is not right to circumcise Jews in accordance to it today because the Mosaic Law has been rendered inoperative, it is no longer the believer's rule of life, our rule of life is as you said the law of Christ.
But circumcision for Jews is required of them under the Abrahamic Covenant which is an eternal everlasting covenant.

So we use the preexisting covenant as a method to distinguish which verses are applicable? Do you have a summary of the laws of that covenant?
 
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