The Wonderful Dispensation of Grace

lightninboy

Member
So, uh, this Jewish gospel was phased out when?
The church of Christ consists of Jews or Gentiles?
What gospel should a Jew be saved with today?
 

lightninboy

Member
It has been said that the KJV Romans 8:1 should end after "Jesus." Even that it should have an exclamation mark after it.

TNIV 1Therefore, there is now no condemnation for those who are in Christ Jesus,
NIV 1Therefore, there is now no condemnation for those who are in Christ Jesus,
KJV 1There is therefore now no condemnation to them which are in Christ Jesus, who walk not after the flesh, but after the Spirit.

http://www.tniv.info/bible/passages...&submit=Lookup&niv=yes&display_option=columns

http://www.biblelife.org/word.htm
 

lightninboy

Member
Bob Hill's website:
http://www.biblicalanswers.com/index.htm

http://www.biblicalanswers.com/questionsanswered.htm

I more or less tend to agree with Pastor Hill's answers except for in Dispensational Theology issues.

http://www.biblicalanswers.com/questionsanswered/qa_dispensational_theology_1_frameset.htm

Are there two different presentations of the gospel of salvation?
Are there two gospels in the Bible?
I figure no. Pastor Hill says yes.

Can you use the Gospel of John to present the gospel?
I figure yes. Pastor Hill says it can be done but it shouldn't be done.

http://www.biblicalanswers.com/questionsanswered/qa_dispensational_theology_2_frameset.htm

Can you prove that the Body Of Christ was NOT started on the Day of Pentecost?
I figure this matter depends on what you call the Body of Christ. Pastor Hill thinks he can prove it was not.

http://www.biblicalanswers.com/questionsanswered/qa_dispensational_theology_3_frameset.htm

Why did the church start in Acts 9?
I figure it didn't. Pastor Hill figures it did.

Was Paul preaching the kingdom gospel when he said "deeds appropriate for repentance"?
Good question.

http://www.biblicalanswers.com/questionsanswered/qa_dispensational_theology_4_frameset.htm

What books are "to" the Christian in this dispensation of grace?
I figure the whole Bible rightly divided. Pastor Hill says
All Scripture is for us.
2 Ti 3:16,17 All Scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness, 17 that the man of God may be complete, thoroughly equipped for every good work.
But not all Scripture is written to the body of Christ. Paul was raised up and given a new mission to a new church, the body of Christ. His epistles are addressed to us. There are 13. I believe they were written in this order: Galatians, 1 & 2 Thessalonians, 1 & 2 Corinthians, Romans, Ephesians, Colossians, Philemon, Philippians, 1 Timothy, Titus, 2 Timothy.
 

lightninboy

Member
I may not agree with godrulz all the time, but I thought he said this eloquently:

The 12 started out, like Jesus, under the Old Covenant. The ministry of Jesus was also full of grace with Johannine thought (and Christ's teachings) emphasizing faith/belief vs unbelief, not works or law. The transition from Old to New was starting while God was on earth. An exclamation mark happened at his death and resurrection and things were implemented at Pentecost. Paul took this Christological message to the Gentiles, but the New Covenant gospel (there are not 2 NT gospels) did not start just because he converted and received the gospel. Peter was on to it earlier. The 12 were in the New Covenant after the resurrection and they immediately preached Christ alone (like Paul), though there was still some transitional dispute about Jew vs Gentile. Just because some of the 12 were bound by tradition and slow to see what the Spirit was doing among the Gentiles does not mean there was an arbitrary circumcision/uncircumcision gospel during the incipient (early) church age. This is not a self-evident inference from the historical narratives, but one of many dispensational systems with roots in Bullingerism, etc. (refuted by Ironside and others).
Grace has always been the grounds of salvation. Faith has always been a condition. People were called the people of God even before they were circumcised. Outward ritual cannot add anything to salvation. Baptism cannot save. Outward things are evidence of inward faith, not the reason we are saved.

Why was Billy Graham called to preach? Why was Dwight Moody and all the missionaries to other countries called to preach. Paul was called to take the gospel primarily to the Gentiles. He was not the inventor of the gospel. The gospel of the New Covenant came into affect with the death and resurrection of Christ. The mystery of the Church Age was birthed at Pentecost by the Holy Spirit. Just because there was a transition period between Old and New Covenant with the Spirit dealing with the bias against Gentiles by the Jewish Christians does not mean Paul's conversion was the first time Christ was preached.

The mystery was revealed to Paul. It was not birthed by Paul. The Spirit also dealt with Peter and the Gentile Cornelius before Paul was in full swing. Peter did not circumcise the Gentile. His understanding grew under the apostle to the Gentiles, but there was not an artificial time that the Church started after Paul. The Church Age started before Paul. God called and revealed things to Paul directly. You wrongly interpret this to mean that He was not calling and revealing things to the 12. They lived in both covenants, so their ministry shifted. Johannine and Pauline theology are not mutually exclusive. John was writing after Paul died. He was not stuck in a circumcision gospel decades after Paul. He pastored Gentiles in Ephesus and would have been preaching consistent with Paul. Mid-Acts would have us believe that much of the NT is not directly applicable to the Church Age. Just as some think Pauline teaching does not belong in the NT, so thinking non-Pauline writings are not applicable directly to us is just as bad.

Peter, James, John, etc. eventually got up to speed about the gospel going to the Gentiles without Jewish baggage. They took THE gospel to the Jew first as Jesus had done. The pattern was to then take it to the world, especially as the Jews were rejecting their Messiah. Paul primarily took THE gospel to Gentiles throughout the known world. He had a different task, not a different gospel after the resurrection. This does not mean that Paul never preached to Jews (he did, without preaching a circ. gospel...he preached the same gospel to both Jew and Gentile). It does not mean that the 12 never preached Paul's gospel to the Gentiles.

The historical narratives of the early church can be understood by Acts 2 dispensationalism without needing a Mid-Acts perspective to resolve supposed controversies. I can account for a Pentecostal hermeneutic, believer's baptism, Great Commission, today, etc. from contextual exegesis. Your view dismisses these things to conform to a preconceived theology that is not self-evident to most scholars.
 

lightninboy

Member
godrulz said:
If our arguments are solid and persuasive, he would change his views (as he has on other areas in the past, like most of us).

lightninboy said:
Oh, I know you've been through so much it's hard to contemplate letting go of your Mid-Acts Dispensationalism.

If you are proven wrong, will you change, Pastor Hill?

Was there a difference between Saul, David, Abraham, and those other big shots and the rank and file nobodies who had to make an offering every year?

No. Everybody received eternal life by grace through faith plus nothing. The sacrifices were never for gaining eternal life, but were for maintaining fellowship and intimacy with God...just like good works in the life of the believer today.

Any view which says salvation was through faith plus works is wrong.
 

Lighthouse

The Dark Knight
Gold Subscriber
Hall of Fame
lightninboy-

What gospel did the disciples preach, when Jesus told them to preach the gospel before his death on the cross?
 

lightninboy

Member
Lighthouse said:
lightninboy-

What gospel did the disciples preach, when Jesus told them to preach the gospel before his death on the cross?

You must be that young fireball I wanted to debate with.

Tell me what verse that's in.
 

Lighthouse

The Dark Knight
Gold Subscriber
Hall of Fame
lightninboy said:
You must be that young fireball I wanted to debate with.

Tell me what verse that's in.
I even found some verses that Jesus preached the gospel, before he ever told anyone He was to die.

Matthew 4:23, 9:35, 11:5, 24:14, 26:13, Mark 1:1, 1:14 & 15, 8:35, 10:29, 13:10, 14:9, Luke 4:18, 7:22, 9:6, 7 20:1.
 

Bob Hill

TOL Subscriber
The forerunner and Apostles of Jesus preached “Repent, and let every one of you be baptized in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of sins

Mark 1:4 John came baptizing in the wilderness and preaching a baptism of repentance for the remission of sins.

Luke 3:2,3 the word of God came to John the son of Zacharias in the wilderness. 3 And he went into all the region around the Jordan, preaching a baptism of repentance for the remission of sins.

Acts 2:36-38 Therefore let all the house of Israel know assuredly that God has made this Jesus, whom you crucified, both Lord and Christ.” 37 Now when they heard this, they were cut to the heart, and said to Peter and the rest of the apostles, “Men and brethren, what shall we do?” 38 Then Peter said to them, “Repent, and let every one of you be baptized in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of sins; and you shall receive the gift of the Holy Spirit.

In contrast, when the jailor asked what he had to do to be saved, in Acts 16:29,30 we see what Paul and Silas said: “Paul and Silas. 30 And he brought them out and said, ‘Sirs, what must I do to be saved?’ 31 So they said, ‘Believe on the Lord Jesus Christ, and you will be saved, you and your household.’”

They did not have to be water baptized to be saved in the Dispensation of Grace that started with Paul.

In Christ,
Bob Hill
 

Bob Hill

TOL Subscriber
Eph 3:9 "and to make all men see what is the dispensation of the mystery"

I was asked if the above version of Eph 3:9 was my own translation, for the use of dispensation there is really quite jarring. Stewardship would fit much better.

Although I have the ability to do my own translation of New Testament material, I had to answer, No! That really was not my own translation. However, after studying that word thoroughly, I believe it is, by far, the best translation. :thumb: :thumb: :thumb: :thumb:

Here are the translations of the Bibles I have in Logos. I also copied from the translations and comments on this verse from ten books from my library. I would have copied more, but it began to get too redundant.

1901 American Standard and to make all men see what is the dispensation of the mystery which for ages hath been hid in God who created all things

Concordant Version and to enlighten all as to what is the administration of the secret, which has been concealed from the eons in God, Who creates all

Darby and to enlighten all with the knowledge of what is the administration of the mystery hidden throughout the ages in God, who has created all things

KJV based on TR And to make all men see what is the fellowship of the mystery, which from the beginning of the world hath been hid in God, who created all things by Jesus Christ

New American Bible and to bring to light (for all) what is the plan of the mystery hidden from ages past in God who created all things

New American Standard Bible and to bring to light what is the administration of the mystery which for ages has been hidden in God, who created all things

NIV and to make plain to everyone the administration of this mystery, which for ages past was kept hidden in God, who created all things.

NKJV based on TR and to make all see what is the fellowship of the mystery, which from the beginning of the ages has been hidden in God who created all things through Jesus Christ

NRSV and to make everyone see what is the plan of the mystery hidden for ages in God who created all things

RSV and to make all men see what is the plan of the mystery hidden for ages in God who created all things

Young’s Literal and to cause all to see what is the fellowship of the secret that hath been hid from the ages in God, who the all things did create by Jesus Christ

Complete Biblical Library The NT Greek-English Dictionary “household administration, the management of a household” “Pauline epistles . . . ‘A dispensation of the gospel is committed unto me’ ‘in Ephesians 1:10 (“dispensation of the fullness of times”)

Theological Lexicon of the NT “Oikonomia is the activity of the oikonomos (Luke 16:2-4), in the form of the dispensation of salvation . . . In the papyri, oikonomia certainly refers to the act of administering . . . f.n. 24 Eph 1:10. Oikonomia can be translated either ‘plan, dispensation, strategy’ . . . that is secret, a revealed mystery . . . the business activity of an administrator”

Lange’s Commentary V. 11 “What is the dispensation of the Mystery . . . The ‘mystery’ here is not merely the calling of the Gentiles (ver. 6), but as in ii. 3; here ‘the actual accomplishment of the plan hitherto formed in secret’ . . . Ellicott: ‘The dispensation (arrangement, regulation) of the mystery (the union of Jews and Gentiles in Christ, ver. 6), which was to be humbly traced and acknowledged in the fact of its having secretly existed in the primal counsels of God, and now having been revealed to the heavenly powers by means of the Church.’ So Meyer, Alford and most.”

Lutheran scholar, Lenski “We again meet the question as to whether oijkonomiva is passive, ‘the dispensation’ or arrangement made by God, or active, ‘the administration’ Paul carries out in his office. . . . It was, indeed, ‘the administration of (nothing less than) the mystery’ so long hidden in God.

Ernest R. Campbell “and to enlighten all men regarding the dispensation of the mystery . . . . The thought that Paul wants to get across to all men is ‘what’ (tis) the dispensation of the mystery really is”

H.C.G. Moule D.D. “as to what is, in its amazing fact and character, the dispensation, the world-wide distribution, as God designs it, through His servants, of the mystery, the Secret of a world’s covenant-blessing in Christ”

J. Armitage Robinson “to bring to light what is the dispensation

Charles H. Welch “The dispensation of the Mystery is said to have been hid in God from the beginning of the world. The words ‘from the beginning of the world’ are in the Greek apo ton aionon ‘from or since the ages’.”

I still believe this is the best translation of oikonomia.

I have been teaching Greek for 45 years. I have taught in Derby School of Theology. I got my Greek, both classical and NT at UCLA.

In Christ,
Bob Hill
 

lightninboy

Member
Lighthouse said:
I even found some verses that Jesus preached the gospel, before he ever told anyone He was to die.

Matthew 4:23, 9:35, 11:5, 24:14, 26:13, Mark 1:1, 1:14 & 15, 8:35, 10:29, 13:10, 14:9, Luke 4:18, 7:22, 9:6, 7 20:1.

Thanks for the verses. Oh, you meant the gospel of the kingdom? Acts 2 Dispensationalism is a work in progress, but it can handle the gospel of the kingdom. Did you ever hear of Lewis Sperry Chafer?

http://www.ccel.org/contrib/exec_outlines/king.htm
http://www.geocities.com/Heartland/9170/COX1-6.HTM
http://www.withchrist.org/MJS/gospels.htm
http://www.withchrist.org/MJS/chafonct.htm
http://users.frii.com/gosplow/disp2.html
 

lightninboy

Member
Some unfinished business:

Pastor Hill, even if saving faith is described as continuous, God must honor His word by giving everlasting life to one who believes upon Christ for it. Salvation is instantaneous. Jesus indeed said that whosoever believeth on Him has everlasting life.

This is a problem of association. Four major ministries of the Holy Spirit occur today at the moment one believes in Christ. I remember it with the acronym RIBS: regeneration, indwelling, baptizing, and sealing.
Today, RIBS. Prior to Pentecost, RS. After the Rapture, RIS. But one thing has been true and will be true in every dispensation: all who believe that the Messiah guarantees everlasting life to all who simply believe in Him are regenerate people (R). Regeneration bridges every dispensation.

You, Bob Hill -and all of you who are MAD doctrine promoters and believers are not any of these:
So -you have no Scripture written to you, for you.

your just learning the NT. Wait till you learn the OT from MAD people. They believe
king solomn is in Hell, and the OT saints can lose their salvation if they gather sticks on the Sabbath.

What can Acts 9 or 16 or whatever chapter Mid-Acts Dispensationalism do that Acts 2 Dispensationalism can't do better?

So what should we do with the classic gospel verses of John?
What are they good for?
How do you get "faith plus works" out of "believeth"?
Don't they have such a striking similarity to Acts 16:30-31, Eph. 2:8-9, etc., that they must be considered for us today? And if for us today, why not for the Old Testament and pre-Acts 9 New Testament?
When does John 3:16 refer to? Who does John 3:16 refer to?
Do your Pauline evangelism verses require continuous believing too?

King Solomon is not in hell, and there was no salvation in the OT to be lost.

I agree that we differ on how the Old Testament saints were saved. I believe they were by grace through faith, but they had to do certain things that God required. I'm not sure if you mean the Old Testament believers were saved just by faith, or had to do what God said they had to do, by faith - which was a lot.

So, uh, this Jewish gospel was phased out when?
The church of Christ consists of Jews or Gentiles?
What gospel should a Jew be saved with today?

If you are proven wrong, will you change, Pastor Hill?

No. Everybody received eternal life by grace through faith plus nothing. The sacrifices were never for gaining eternal life, but were for maintaining fellowship and intimacy with God...just like good works in the life of the believer today.

Any view which says salvation was through faith plus works is wrong.
 

lightninboy

Member
http://www.theologyonline.com/forums/showthread.php?t=9782

Workman: Men were IN CHRIST even before Christ came to die for sins.

Sozo: Verse, please!

Workman: John 5:24 Verily, verily, I say unto you, He that heareth my word, and believeth on him that sent me, hath everlasting life, and shall not come into condemnation; but is passed from death unto life.
Christ was giving LIFE, spiritual LIFE to men even BEFORE he died for their sins. Again, the New COv't did not even come untill he died for sins. You know that they can't loose their identification with Christ because it says that they ARE passed (not "shall pass") from death to life. Since THIS is so, nobody can say that they must KEEP BELIEVING in order to avoid condemnation. Or else, they NEVER PASSED from death to life. No, the exact phrase "in Christ" is not found in the Old Testament, but then again neither is: Jesus Christ, baptism, Bride of Christ, etc. etc. etc. Just because the phrase is not there does not mean that the TEACHING is not there. Like us too, there was a difference between LIFE vs. reward...but that is a different issue..
Any man in CHrist's day could have life just by believing on his name.

Sozo: Sorry, but that verse says nothing to prove your contention. No one was in Christ until the Holy Spirit had come to dwell in the lives of believers.
"It is the Spirit who gives life"
"He who believes in Me, as the Scripture said, 'From his innermost being shall flow rivers of living water.'" But this He spoke of the Spirit, whom those who believed in Him were to receive; for the Spirit was not yet given, because Jesus was not yet glorified."

Workman: WEll, then we have a REAL problem, cause for some strange reason Christ LEFT THAT OUT in John 5, didn't he??? I mean, after all, it really does NOT MATTER what Christ told people in John 5 if he told other people something different, huh? Oh, yes...that text you gave DOES look forward to the Acts period, but what God WOULD DO THEN does not alter what Christ said was happening in John 5.

Sozo: I don't have a problem, Jesus often spoke of events that were yet to occur.
There was no freedom from condemnation until the debt had been paid. The ability to "believe on Him" was not possible until Jesus had accomplished what God had prepared for Him.
To suggest that anyone possessed the life of God (was in Christ) before Christ's death and resurrection is blasphemous and insults His sacrifice, His shed blood, and His resurrection.

Jerry Shugart: "The hour is coming,and now is,when the dead shall hear the voice of the Son of God;and they that live shall hear"(Jn.5:25).
First of all, Workman has already provided a verse that demonstrates that they were indeed people who believed on Him before the Cross.In fact,who would deny that His Apostles did in fact believe on Him before the CRoss?
And by the Lord's own words those who believed before the Cross "shall not come into condemnation".

Sozo: The benefit from those words were not in effect until Christ sent the Holy Spirit.
It proclaims the same message of grace that has always been available by looking forward to God's provision.
No one was "in Christ", before Christ paid the debt for sin. Christ proclaimed the inheritence that would come for those who believe/believed.

Jerry Shugart: If the "benefits" were not in effect at the time the Lord Jsus spoke those words,then why in the world would He say that they already have everlasting life--"hath everlasting life"?
And why would the Lord Jesus say that that they have already passed from death unto life?

Sozo: Jerry, I don't see why this is such a problem for you (unless of course you hold to a Calvinistic view of the gospel). Jesus is making a promise, that will not be realized until He sends the Holy Spirit. It is impossible for anyone to have been in Christ before they had received the Holy Spirit. The Holy Spirit could not dwell in believers until Christ had paid the debt for sin, and been raised.

Jerry Shugart: If what you say is true,the Lord would have used "future" tense at John 5:24,25.But He did not! Instead,He was speaking in the "present" tense.
If the promises were not to be fulfilled until later,then He would not say that those who are believing (present tense) already have everlasting life and have already passed from death unto life.
You assume that the only way throughout time that one could be saved is by being "in Christ".But there is no Scriptual basis for your idea.And although it was not until after the Cross that believers were dwelled by the Holy Spirit,it is a fact that even during the time that the Lord walked the earth that the Holy Spirit was quickening dead sinners.That is the meaning of the words of the Lord Jesus when HE said the following:
"It is the Spirit that giveth life...The words that I speak unto you,they are Spirit,and they are life"(Jn.6:63).

Sozo: You've got to be kidding, that you don't understand that!
For you to teach that anyone was saved apart from the death & resurrection of Christ, is blasphemous.

Jerry Shugart: It is you who has to be kidding.Don't you know the difference between "present" tense and "future" tense?
I am not teaching salvation apart from the death of Jesus Christ.Instead,the Scriptures state that the sins of believers before the CRoss were "covered":
"Even as David also describeth the blessedness of the man, unto whom God imputeth righteousness without works,
7 Saying, Blessed are they whose iniquities are forgiven, and whose sins are covered"(Ro.4:6,7).
David lived before the Cross,but through the Lord's forbearence He is able to "cover" David's sins all the while knowning that HE could place those sins on the Lord Jesus at the Cross.And that is exactly what Paul is speaking of in the following verse where he talks about "sins that are past",i.e. the sins of those who lived in previous dispensations:
"...to declare his righteousness for the remission of sins that are past, through the forbearance of God"(Ro.3:25).
And the author of Hebrews makes it plain that the death of the Lord Jesus redeemed the sins of those who lived under the dispensation of the law (as did David):
"And for this cause he is the mediator of the new testament, that by means of death for the redemption of the transgressions that were under the first testament, they which are called might receive the promise of eternal inheritance"(Heb.9:15).
Those who lived under the law at the time that the Lord Jesus walked the earth were saved and "born of God" when they believed that He is the Christ,the Son of God:
"Whosoever believeth that Jesus is the Christ is born of God... Who is he that overcometh the world, but he that believeth that Jesus is the Son of God?"(1Jn.5:1,5).
Those who received the Lord Jesus Christ while He walked the earth were "born of God":
But as many as received him, to them gave he power to become the children of God, even to them that believe on his name:
13 Who were born, not of blood, nor of the will of the flesh, nor of the will of man, but of God"(Jn.1:12,13).
It is evident that there were sinners who were saved even before the Cross.There were many that believed that Jesus Christ is the Christ,the Son of God,and upon believing that they were "born of God" and received "everlasting life".

Sozo: You have completely undermined the message of the gospel through this heretical view of yours.
I never said that they must believe in some future tense of the word believe. They believe NOW, but they Holy Spirit could not come until Christ was glorified. Without the Holy Spirit living in the life of the believer they were not saved. They have the promise of salvation (just as did any one under the first covenant), but not the reality. Belief in God was accounted as righteousness, but NONE of them received the promise! You negate the cross, by teaching this heresy of yours, which is damnable! Where do you get this convoluted idea, and why would you make claim to it. What is your evil motivation?

Jerry Shugart: It is your views which deny what is so plain in Scripture.According to you we must believe that no one was saved before the Cross.But what about the following words of the Lord Jesus?:
"I am the God of Abraham, and the God of Isaac, and the God of Jacob? God is not the God of the dead, but of the living"(Mt.22:32).
Are we supposed to believe that Abraham and Isaac and Jacob were not saved at the time the Lord said those words? Those men were "dead" physically,but they were "alive" spiritually.
And are we supposed to believe that Moses and Elijah were not saved,even though the Apostles saw them with the Lord Jesus at the tranfiguration?:
"And was transfigured before them: and his face did shine as the sun, and his raiment was white as the light.And, behold, there appeared unto them Moses and Elias talking with Him"(Mt.17:2,3).
The vast majority of dispensational teachers say the same thing that I am saying.Here are words from the "New Scofield Study Bible":
Before the cross man was saved in prospect of Christ's atoning sacrifice,through believing the revelation thus far given him"(note at Genesis 1:28).
If you have read any dispensational writers besides Bob Hill and Bob Enyart then you would be aware that they all say that believers were saved before the Cross. All the great dispensational writers,from John Nelson Darby to Sir Robert Anderson,teach that believers were saved before the Cross.

Sozo: "Now on the last day, the great day of the feast, Jesus stood and cried out, saying, "If any man is thirsty, let him come to Me and drink. "He who believes in Me, as the Scripture said, 'From his innermost being shall flow rivers of living water.'" But this He spoke of the Spirit, whom those who believed in Him were to receive; for the Spirit was not yet given, because Jesus was not yet glorified. "

Jerry Shugart: The words there are speaking of the "indwelling" of the Holy Spirit and not the "quickening" of the Holy Spirit.
Can you quote even one noted Bible teacher that teaches as you do?Just one?
And what about Enoch?Here is what the author of Hebrews said about him:
"By faith Enoch was translated that he should not see death,and was not found,because God had translated him;for before his translation he had this testimony,that he pleased God"(Heb.11:5).
This happened before the Cross,but in order to believe your ideas we must somehow force our mind into believing that even though Enoch was translated that he should not see death that he was not saved!

Sozo: Not that it matters, but Charles Spurgeon, Major Ian Thomas, David Needham, Bob George, Bill Gillham, Peter Gilquist, Malcolm Smith, and others.
They all believe in an exchanged life.
"And all these, having gained approval through their faith, did not receive what was promised, because God had provided something better for us, so that apart from us they should not be made perfect."

Jerry Shugart: The promises which they did not receive are in reference to "eschatological hopes".As a result,the perfecting (Heb.10:14;12:23) of the OT worthies--that is,the realization of their hopes--awaits that of all believers.
"And this is the Father's will which hath sent me, that of all which he hath given me I should lose nothing, but should raise them up again at the last day"(Jn.6:39).
Here the Lord is saying that none of those given to Him by the Father should be lost,and that HE will raise them up again the last day.
If these people who were given to Him were not saved then we are all in trouble!
And I would like to hear a quote of Spurgeon where he says that nobody was saved before the Cross.
 

lightninboy

Member
http://www.theologyonline.com/forums/showthread.php?t=13451&page=1&pp=15

Round 1-Jerry Shugart: Those who teach that “works” were required for eternal salvation say that the Jewish believers must do “works” in order to be saved.But how can they explain the following words of Peter where he says that the Jewish believers are saved in the same way as are the Gentile believers?:
”We believe that it is through the grace of our Lord Jesus that we are saved,just as they are”(Acts15:11;NIV).
Paul speaks of the “remnant” out of Israel,saying that ”at this present time also there is a remnant according to the election of grace.And if by grace, then is it no more of works: otherwise grace is no more grace”(Ro.11:5,6).
The Scriptures reveal that “eternal life” is a gift of God (Ro.6:23),and anyone knows that “works” are not required in order to receive a “gift”.Nonetheless,those who argue that works are required for salvation continue to insist that “works” must be performed before the Jewish believers could receive this free “gift of eternal life”.
There were some Jews who attempted to establish their own righteousness before God by doing “works”,but Paul says that they did this in ignorance:
” For they being ignorant of God's righteousness, and going about to establish their own righteousness, have not submitted themselves unto the righteousness of God”(Ro.10:3).
Paul says that it is those who worketh not who receive the imputed righteousness of the Lord:
”Now to him that worketh is the reward not reckoned of grace,but of debt.But to him that worketh not,but believeth on Him that justifieth the ungodly,his faith is counted for righteousness”(Ro.4:4,5).
Paul calls this imputed “righteousness” a “blessing that comes unto both the circumcision and the uncircumcision:
”Even as David also describeth the blessedness of the man, unto whom God imputeth righteousness without works,Saying, Blessed are they whose iniquities are forgiven, and whose sins are covered.Blessed is the man to whom the Lord will not impute sin.Cometh this blessedness then upon the circumcision only, or upon the uncircumcision also?”(Ro.4:6-9).
Paul answers his own question by saying that this righteusness apart from works is imputed to the uncircumcision as well as to the circumcision (v.11).So we can see that this “righteousness of God” comes upon David (who lived under the law) as well as all the circumcised believers apart from works.How can anyone assert that works are required even though Paul says that this blessing comes upon “him who worketh not”?
We can also see that the Jewish believers were “born again” or “born of God” when they believed that Jesus is the promised Messiah,the Son of the Living God (1Pet.1:23;1Jn.5:1,6):
”Who were born, not of blood, nor of the will of the flesh, nor of the will of man, but of God”(Jn.1:13).
The Apostle John rules out the idea that this new birth of God is of “works” because he explicitly states that this birth is not “of the will of the flesh”.
Also,those who argue that “works” are required for salvation also say that those who must work do not receive salvation until the end of a faithful life.But that idea is easily refuted by the Scriptures.John tells the Jewish believers the following:
”And this is the record,that God hath given to us eternal life,and this life is in His Son”(1Jn.5:11).
The word “eternal” is translated from the Greek word “aionios”,which means ”without end,never to cease,everlasting”(“Thayer’s Greek English Lexicon”).So in essence John is telling these Jewish believers that they already possess a life in Jesus Christ that will never end.If it could possibly end,then that would mean that it was never “eternal” to begin with.But John tells them in no uncertain terms that they already possess a life in Jesus Christ that is “eternal”.
If that is not enough,we can see that the Lord Jesus Himself says that those to whom He has given eternal life “shall never perish”:
”And I give unto them eternal life,and they shall never perish;neither shall any man pluck them out of My hand.My Father,who gave them to Me…”(Jn.10:28,29).
These who have been given to Him by the Father “shall never perish”.So if words have any meaning then it becomes evident that those who received John’s epistles “shall never perish”.And this is what the Lord Jesus says about those who have been given to Him by the Father:
”And this is the Father’s will Who hath sent Me,that of ALL that He hath given Me I should lose nothing,but should raise them up again at the last day”(Jn.6:39).
However,despite this overwhelming Scriptual evidence that these Jewish believers do in fact enjoy eternal security,there are those who will still continue to insist that they can lose their “eternal life” if they do not continue to do “works”.It was not only the Jewish believers who lived during the present dispensation who possessed eternal security,but also those who lived in previous dispensations:
”For the Lord loveth justice,and forsaketh not His saints;they are preserved forever”(Ps.37:28).

Round 2-Jerry Shugart: The "works of the Law" were indeed necessary for "salvation",but that salvation is not in regard to "eternal salvation" but instead in regard to "temporal" or "physical" salvation.When a Jew committed a sin that was punishable by "physical" death he could bring an "offering" to be killed in his place.The Mosaic Covenant was never in regard to "eternal salvation" but instead was only in regard to temporal things:
" The soul that sinneth, it shall die…But if the wicked will turn from all his sins that he hath committed, and keep all my statutes, and do that which is lawful and right, he shall surely live, he shall not die"(Ez.18:20,21).
The Jews only understood the Mosaic Covenant in terms of "physical" death.That is also true of the Abrahamic Covenant,as witnessed by the following words:
"The oath which he sware to our father Abraham,That he would grant unto us, that we being delivered out of the hand of our enemies might serve him without fear …That we should be saved from our enemies, and from the hand of all that hate us"(Lk.1:73,74,71).
The "New Scofield Study Bible" correctly points out that the Mosaic Covenant "was not given as a way of life (i.e. a means of justification…),but as a rule of living for a people already in the covenant of Abraham and covered by blood sacrifices…)"(Note at Ex.19:1).And that idea is reinforced by the following Scriptual passage:
" This book of the law shall not depart out of thy mouth; but thou shalt meditate therein day and night, that thou mayest observe to do according to all that is written therein: for then thou shalt make thy way prosperous, and then thou shalt have good success"(Josh.1:8).
And that is the meaning that Paul gives to "the Law" when he says the following:
" But that no man is justified by the law in the sight of God, it is evident: for, The just shall live by faith.
And the law is not of faith: but, The man that doeth them shall live in them"(Gal.3:11,12).
The Law was only a "shadow" or "type" that illustrates spiritual realities (Heb.10:1),but Jeremy attempts to employ these "types" in his efforts to prove that obedience to the Law was necessary for "eternal" salvation".
I guess that Jeremy thinks that the "gift of eternal life" is only in regard to this dispensation.But how can the following words of the Lord Jesus spoken in a previous dispensation be understood?:
"Jesus answered and said unto her, If thou knewest the gift of God, and who it is that saith to thee, Give me to drink; thou wouldest have asked of him, and he would have given thee living water"(Jn.4:10).
At one time you say that "works" are required for eternal salvation,but when cornered by Scriptual passages that cannot be disputed you say that you are not saying that "works are required" for the free gift of eternal life!
Here is your "reasoning".You say that in past dispensations the believer must "demonstrate" their faith by "works" in order that they might be saved.But the Lord knows who has true "faith" and who does not.He does not need "outward" demonstrations in order to know if one has true faith or not:
" …for the LORD seeth not as man seeth; for man looketh on the outward appearance, but the LORD looketh on the heart"(1Sam.16:7).
"And this is the record, that God hath given to us eternal life, and this life is in his Son"(1Jn.5:11).
These Jewish believers were told that they already possessed a life in Jesus Christ that is "without end".
Jeremy says they posssessed "eternal life" as long as they remained faithful,which implies that they could lose this "eternal life".But if the could lose a life in Jesus Christ that John describes as "without end" then it is obvious that they never possessed a life in Christ that was "without end" to begin with.He seems to think that even though the Lord Jesus Himself says that those who possess eternal life shall never perish that they can indeed perish.He seems to think that the Lord did not do the will of the Father and that some who were given Him by the Father can indeed become lost.
Jeremy attempts to use the following verse to demonstrate that the Jews did not receive the "salvation of their souls" until the end of a faithful life:
"Receiving the end of your faith, even the salvation of your souls."(1Pet.1:9).
However,the word receiving is in the "present tense".At the time that Peter was writing his epistle he was telling the Jewsish believers that at the "present" time they have already received the salvation of their souls.The word "end" can mean,"the end to which all things relate,the aim,purpose"("Thayer's Greek English Lexicon").So in this case it means "the result of your faith",and that result of faith is the salvation of the soul,and that is the way that it is translated in some Bibles:
"Receiving the result of your faith, the salvation of your souls"(1Pet.1:9;HNV).
Quote:
4. Does God change the way He deals with man for salvation?
The sinner is justified before God by the principle of "grace"(Ro.3:24).
However,the "revelation" of God that one must believe in order to be saved has changed throughout history.And it is those who believe God,no matter what that "revelation" may be,who are justified in the sight of the Lord:
Also,the following words seem to indicate that for the Jews "faith" in Jesus Christ is what brings about "eternal life":
" For God so loved the world, that he gave his only begotten Son, that whosoever believeth in Him should not perish, but have everlasting life"(Jn.3:16).
Would you please give me your interpretation of the meaning of those words?

Round 3-Jerry Shugart: Justified by faith before God;justified by works before men.
If we want to know the teaching of James as to how the Jewish believer is saved all we have to do is to go to the following verse:
" Of His own will begot He us with the word of truth, that we should be a kind of firstfruits of his creatures"(Jms.1:18).
I have already pointed out that the Scriptures reveal that the Jewish believers were "born again" (the same thing as being "born of God" and "born of the Spirit"),but Jeremy remains silent on this point.Peter says,"Being born again, not of corruptible seed, but of incorruptible, by the word of God, which liveth and abideth for ever"(1Pet.1:23).
This born again experience comes upon all those who "believe God",no matter what that Revelation is.And that new brth is not a result of "works" because John makes it plain that the birth of God is not accomplished by the "will of the flesh":
"But as many as received him, to them gave he power to become the sons of God, even to them that believe on his name:Who were born, not of blood, nor of the will of the flesh, nor of the will of man, but of God"(Jn.1:12,13).
The Jews did not understand this until Paul was converted and he revealed a "righteousness of God" which is "apart from law" and comes upon ALL who believe:
"But now the righteousness of God apart from the law is revealed, being witnessed by the law and the prophets;Even the righteousness of God which is by the faithfulness of Jesus Christ unto all and upon all them who believe"(Ro.3:21,22).
Next,let us examine what Jeremy says in regard to the "salvation" under "the Law".He seems to think that "physical" death equals "spiritual" death.In fact,he writes hundreds of words to attempt to prove this but he falls short of his goal.If we examine the teaching of Paul in regard to the Christians who sin presumptuously we can see that the Lord might put them to death "physically" but they will remain saved nonetheless.Here are his words in regard to the Christian who was living with his father's wife:
" To deliver such an one unto Satan for the destruction of the flesh, that the spirit may be saved in the day of the Lord Jesus"(1Cor.5:5).
The Lord will chasten his "sons" (those "born of God"),but he will not send his sons to hell.There were some in the church at Cornith who were participating in the Lord's supper in an "unworthy" fashion.Paul says that for this reason many of them are "sick" and some have been put to death.These Christians lost their "physical" life when they were chastened by the Lord,but they remained saved eternally nonetheless:
" For this cause many are weak and sickly among you, and many sleep.For if we would judge ourselves, we should not be judged.But when we are judged, we are chastened of the Lord, that we should not be condemned with the world"(1Cor.11:30-32).
These Christian's who are put to death "physically" but they do not lose their "eternal salvation".But Jeremy thinks that the "physical" death under the Law is in reference to a "spiritual" death that lasts forever.As I have already demonstrated,those who lived under the Law and "believed" were eternally secure:
Perhaps Jeremy can explain how "our own righteousness",which "are as filthy rags",can save anyone eternally?If the Jew would keep all the statutes then they would not lose their "physical" life.But this law keeping saved no one "eternally",as witnessed by the words of Paul:
" Therefore by the deeds of the law there shall no flesh be justified in his sight: for by the law is the knowledge of sin"(Ro.3:20).
Despite these words of Paul Jeremy continues to insist (by using a false interpretation of James) that works of the Law do indeed justify the sinner before the Lord.Jeremy continues to attempt to prove that keeping the Law was in regard to "eternal" salvation by quoting the following verse:
Quote:
Psalm 19:7a
7a The law of the LORD is perfect, converting the soul
Yes,and in this case "the Law" can indeed convert one into living a "physical" life that brings rewards.That is what Paul means when he says:
" But that no man is justified by the law in the sight of God, it is evident: for, The just shall live by faith.And the law is not of faith: but, The man that doeth them shall live in them"(Gal.3:11,12).
What does Paul mean in regard to "living" in the Law?:
"This book of the law shall not depart out of thy mouth; but thou shalt meditate therein day and night, that thou mayest observe to do according to all that is written therein: for then thou shalt make thy way prosperous, and then thou shalt have good success"(Josh.1:8).
Quote:
If David did not deserve death because "God does not impute iniquity," why did God still punish David by taking his son?
David was being "chastened" by the Lord by imputing his iniquity to his account by taking the life of his infant son.This is in regard to the "physical" sphere and not in regard to the things of the "eternal" sphere.In the eternal sphere he does not impute the sins of the believer.
Next,let us examine Jeremy's response to the verses I provided that demonstate beyond any doubt that the Jewish believers did in fact possess "eternal security".I pointed out that those who were given to the Lord Jesus by the Father would be raised up the last day:
" And this is the Father's will which hath sent me, that of all which he hath given me I should lose nothing, but should raise it up again at the last day"(Jn.6:39).
Jeremy seems to be under the impression that it was in the Father's will that none should be lost but the Lord Jesus did not do the will of the Father because Judas was lost!Imagine that!Jeremy seems to think that the Lord Jesus came into the world to do the Father's will but He failed.Jeremy offers up the following verse which he does not understand in order to attempt to prove that the Lord Jesus did not do what the Father willed.Jeremy says:

Quote:
Jerry says Christ "did not lose any" that the Father gave Him. The Father gave Judas to Christ, and Judas was lost.
John 17
12 "While I was with them in the world, I kept them in Your name. Those whom You gave Me I have kept; and none of them is lost except the son of perdition, that the Scripture might be fulfilled.
Judas is another example of one who "possessed eternal life," fell away, and went to hell.

Sir Robert Anderson,the father of Mid-Acts dispensationalism,has this to say about the words at John 17:12:
So according to Greek experts Judas is not an "exception" to the group described as being given to the Lord Jesus by the Father,but instead he belongs to a group who were not given to the Son by the Father.But some people will attempt to use this verse to support their ideas even if it casts a doubt on the work of the Son in regard to doing the Father's will.In other words,they would rather say that the Lord Jesus did not do the will of the Father so that they can attempt to prove that those who were given by the Son by the Father could in fact be lost!
Quote:
Jerry, I know what the word eternal means. aionion means eternal or agelong.
Actually,I can find no Greek experts who say that the word "aionios" is only in regard to one "age" or another "age".
Again,Jeremy fails to even address the following words of the Lord Jesus when He says that those who already possess "eternal" life shall never perish:
" And I give unto them eternal life; and they shall never perish"(Jn.10:28).
Quote:
" For God so loved the world, that he gave his only begotten Son, that whosoever believeth in him should not perish, but have everlasting life"(Jn.3:16).
Jeremy says:
Again Jerry, this is conditional for them. If they believe in Him, they have eternal life. If they stop believing in Him, they lose their eternal life.
First of all,those who believe the "truth" in their hearts will forever continue to believe the "truth":
"...all they that have known the truth;For the truth's sake, which dwelleth in us, and shall be with us for ever"(2Jn.1,2).
However, Jeremy goes about to prove that there were some who "believed" in Him but later they went out to kill Him.But Jeremy fails to realize that there were many who "believed in Him" who never believed in their hearts.He says that I say that those who the Lord described as having the devil as their father possessed eternal life:
Now to your questions:
Quote:
1. Did the man in Numbers 15:32 go to hell?
Only the Lord knows the answer to that question.However,if he "believed God" then he was a "saint" of God,and this is what the Lord says about those who are His "saints" in the OT:
"For the LORD loveth judgment, and forsaketh not his saints; they are preserved for ever"(Ps.37:28).
Quote:
2. Does Hebrews 10:26-29 refer to people who were sanctified by the blood of Christ, and then fell away?
Yes,but again the "punishment" that is handed out to those people is not in regard to "eternal" punishment but instead to "temporal" punishment.After all,the author of Hebrews tells these Jewish believers the following:
"Neither by the blood of goats and calves, but by his own blood he entered in once into the holy place, having obtained eternal redemption for us"(Heb.9:12).
These same Hebrew Christians are told that they are being sanctified,and those who are being sanctified are "perfected forever"(Heb.10:14).
So the warning in regard to sinning presumptuously is in reference to the "temporal" state and not to the "eternal" state.

Round 3-‘Acts9_12Out’ or Jeremy Finkenbinder: 4. Jerry, why do circumcision believer need to “keep on confessing” their sins?
I asked Jerry about 1 John 1:9. This is how he responded…
Quote:
He goes back to the first chapter in order to find a "condition" that he can apply to an "unconditional" statement four chapter later.However,the verse he quotes (1Jn.1:9) is in regard to the believer's "fellowship"(v.6) with the Lord and not in regard to one's "eternal salvation".If we confess our sins,or "judge ourselves",then we will not be chastened by the Lord in our "walk" or "fellowship" with Him.The following words are written to those in the Body of Christ:
I ask again, how does ”He is faithful and just to forgive us our sins and to cleanse us from all unrighteousness, relate to “fellowship” and not salvation? Jerry is wrong again. 1 John 1:9 is referring to salvation, not fellowship. That’s what forgive us our sins is all about Jerry.

Round 4-Jerry Shugart: Quote:
Now I ask... If Peter was preaching the same "message" as Paul, why does Peter say it is unlawful for him to be there? .... Jerry hopes that Peter will preach a wonderful message of "faith alone" to these Gentile belivers.
First of all,I never said that Peter was preaching the same message that Paul preached to the Gentiles.Peter remained under the Law at the time that he spoke to Cornelius.However,that does not mean that Peter thought that he could be justified by the Law before God.
Jerry does not have to “hope” that “faith alone” was preached to them as we can see that Peter was sent there for that express purpose—”who shall tell thee words by which thou and all thy house shall be saved”(Acts11:14).
Here is what Peter said to these Gentiles immediately before the Holy Spirit fell upon them:
” To him give all the prophets witness, that through his name whosoever believeth in Him shall receive remission of sins”(Acts10:43).
When Cornelius and his household believed the words concerning the Lord Jesus—that ”God raised Him up the third day” and that it is ”He Who was ordained by God to be the Judge of the living and the dead”(Acts10:40,42)—then at that moment the Holy Spirit fell on them.As Peter said,”God made choice among us,that the Gentiles by my mouth should hear the word of the gospel and believe”(Acts15:7).
Here Jeremy says that the Jews were being taught that they were justified by “faith works” of the Law.But let us see exactly what Paul said to the Jews in regard to justification by the law:
” Be it known unto you therefore, men and brethren, that through this Man is preached unto you the forgiveness of sins:And by him all who believe are justified from all things, from which ye could not be justified by the law of Moses”(Acts13:38,39).
” For God so loved the world, that he gave his only begotten Son, that whosoever believeth in Him should not perish, but have everlasting life”(Jn.3:16).
Not one word about doing any works!
Jeremy knows that this verse is fatal to his idea,so he attempts to change the plain meaning of the Lord’s words.He says that the “tense” of the word “believeth” refers to a “continuous” action of believing.
However,an examination of the “tense” of the word “believe” demonstrates the the word is in the “present” tense (“Present Active Participle”).It does not indicate “continuous” action,as the following verses indicates:
” But as many as received him, to them gave he power to become the sons of God, even to them that believe on his name:Who were born, not of blood, nor of the will of the flesh, nor of the will of man, but of God”(Jn.1:12,13).
The word “believe” in this verse is in the “present” tense (“Present Active Participle”) just as in John 3:16.If Jeremy is correct that this “faith” must be continuous then it is evident that those who “believed” would not be “born of God” and become His “sons” until the end of a life evidenced by a “continued” belief.However,we can see that the Jewish Apostles were indeed “born again” before they died:
” Being born again, not of corruptible seed, but of incorruptible, by the word of God, which liveth and abideth for ever”(1Pet.1:23).
The Greek present tense by itself does not convey the idea of “continuity” - nor does its counterpart in English.If someone wishes to express the idea of “continuity” then a special context and/or additional words such as "diapantos" (continually), must be inserted into the text in order to convey the idea of continuous believing. No first century Greek reader or hearer would understand these words to mean to 'continue to believe' without the necessary additional qualifiers to the simple present tense.And that is why the author of Hebrews uses such a “qualifier” in order to express the idea of “continuious action”:
” By him therefore let us offer the sacrifice of praise to God continually, that is, the fruit of our lips giving thanks to his name”(Heb.13:15).
The word “offer” in this verse is the “action”,and it is in the “present” tense.But since this “tense” does not express a “continuous action” the author of these words added the word “continually” in order to say that this “offfering” is to be “continuous”.
If continuous believing is necessary to provide one with a state of not perishing then Jn 3:16 must be changed to read "whoever continuously believes in Him will (future) not perish but will (future) have eternal life."
The words at John 3:16 cannot be denied.The one who “believes” in the Lord Jesus “should never perish”.They will not come into condemnation.The Lord Jesus told the Jews:
” He that heareth my word, and believeth on him that sent me, hath everlasting life, and shall not come into condemnation; but is passed from death unto life”(Jn.5:24).
Once again the word “believeth” is in the “present” tense (“Present Active Participle”).Those Jews who were “believing” Him when He spoke His words already posssessed a life which the Lord describes as “everlasting”.At the moment they belived Him they are assured that they will not come into condemnation.
Jeremy knows that if the Jewish believers possessed “eternal security” then his idea that “works” were required for “eternal salvation” comes tumbling down like a child’s house of cards.Therefore,he is forced to attempt to prove that those who “believe” and are “born of God” can indeed perish despite the words of the Lord Jesus to the contrary.
Quote:
If “eternal life” is a free gift then why should we believe that works are required in order to acquire that free gift?

Jeremy answered,saying:
Quote:
I am not saying that “works are required” to obtain that free giftThe question that will be asked I’m sure is, did the “works” in and of themselves “save” anyone. The answer is, no way… The works they did were in no way magical and did not equal salvation. The works they did were an expression of faith. It was a physical expression that God asked them to do to show that they had faith in Him.
Despite the fact that in this debate he is indeed arguing that “works” were required for salvation in previous dispensations he now says that he is “not saying that ‘works are required’ to obtain the free gift” of eternal life!
He attempts prove that he is not teaching that “works” are required for savation by saying that “the ‘works’ in and of themselves did not save anyone.However,he continues to argue that without “works” the Jewish believers could not be saved,but then he turns around and says that these “works” in themselves saved no one!
He says that the “works” they did were just an “expression” of faith.But Jeremy uses the words of James to attempt to prove that the Jewish believers were “justified” before God by “works”—”ye see then,that by works a man is justified,and not by faith only”(Jms.2:24).

Round 5-Jerry Shugart: Jeremy takes a verse out of its context and then uses that verse to support his belief that the Jew was justified by “faith” plus “works of the law” .When the Lord Jesus was asked by the rich man what he must do to have eternal life.The Lord replied,”If you want to enter into life,keep the commandments”(Mt.19:17).
Jeremy says::
Quote:
Jesus’ response to the question is, ”Keep the commandments.” Jesus goes on to again quote the Mosaic Law. How much clearer could it be Jerry?
It is too bad that Jeremy did not quote the rest of the Lord’s discourse.After the rich man went away the Lord Jesus told His disciples that it is easier for a camel to go through the eye of a needle than it is for a rich man to enter into the Kingdom of heaven.Then we see the following exchange:
” When his disciples heard it, they were exceedingly amazed, saying, Who then can be saved?
“But Jesus beheld them, and said unto them, With men this is impossible; but with God all things are possible”(Mt.19:25,26).
Next,Jeremy asks:
Quote:
A couple questions and a point here. If Jerry recognizes that Peter and Paul are preaching different messages, then what does Jerry believe the difference in their message to be? If Peter is “under the law” then why are we still discussing the issue?
When a “gospel” went to the Jews after the resurrection the “message” is the fact that the Lord Jesus is the promised Messiah,the Son of God.On the day of Pentecost Peter used the death and resurrection of the Lord Jesus to prove that Jesus is indeed the promised Messiah:
” Therefore let all the house of Israel know assuredly, that God hath made the same Jesus, whom ye have crucified, both Lord and Christ”(Acts2:36).
As soon as Paul was converted he also preached the same message to the Jews:
” And Paul, as his manner was, went in unto them, and three sabbath days reasoned with them out of the scriptures,Opening and alleging, that Christ must needs have suffered, and risen again from the dead; and that this Jesus, whom I preach unto you, is Christ”(Acts3,4).
Those Jews who believed this “good news” were “born of God” at the very moment they believed.They were “regenerated” or “born again” when they believed that the Lord Jesus is the Christ,the Son of God:
Quote:
12. Jerry, how did circumcision believers “know that they knew” Christ?
These Jewish Christians were told that if they know the Lord in a personal way,then they are given a simple test:We know that we know Him because we keep His commandments.
The word “know” (ginosko) in this instance means ”to become acquainted with…1 Jn.ii.3”(“Thayer’s Greek English Lexicon”).This personal acquaintence can only come from being in “fellowship” with Him.If we are in fellowship with the Lord and “walking in the Spirit” then,as Paul says,”the righteousness of the law might be fulfilled in us,who walk not after the flesh,but after the Spirit”(Ro.8:4).
 

lightninboy

Member
The opinion of a former pastor of mine:

One of the arguments that an Old Testament saint could lose his salvation is Psalm 51:11: Cast me not away from thy presence; and take not thy holy spirit from me.

These statements by David were written from the perspective of the ministry of the Spirit in the OT days. It seems that the Holy Spirit was frequently granted to certain believers for special enablement in ministry. This says nothing of their eternal standing with God. So David was probably writing about not having the privilege of special ministry of the Spirit that enabled him to write Scripture, perform extraordinary feats in battle, etc. This is more along the lines of the filling of the Spirit today. He was not concluding that he was in danger of being lost and forever separated from God. I had an OT prof in seminary who held the view that all OT believes were indwelt by the Spirit, they just did not know it. Don't know what he based this assumption on other than the logical conclusion that if someone is regenerate, they have the Spirit.

Just as it is true that we today may shut Jesus out of our lives as believers and be "cast . . . away from" His presence (the Psalms are poetry you know) here and now, so it was a potential danger for David and all belilevers of his day when they sinned.

The problem with many subjects like the eternal security of the believer in the Old Testament is that we just do not have a great deal of explicit statements in the OT regarding these matters. But it seems that the earliest of believers in recorded history, such as Job as I have mentioned before, were confident of their future with God while realizing that they continued to have problems with sin in their life. There is no question about it. Before the Messiah came there may have been a lot of questions unanswered that Jesus and His apostles clarified in their ministries

It is my view that presenting sacrifices had no saving value with reference to eternal life but were necessary for forgiveness of sins in time before God, i.e. sanctification in this life. This is why David could write after his fall into sin with Bathsheba,
Psalm 51:15. O Lord, open my lips, And my mouth shall show forth Your praise.
16. For You do not desire sacrifice, or else I would give it; You do not delight in burnt offering.
17. The sacrifices of God are a broken spirit, A broken and a contrite heart These, O God, You will not despise.
God has always ultimately been concerned about the spiritual condition of the heart, not performing rituals. David understood that if his heart was not right with God, He did not want his sacrifices (cf. Isaiah 1:11-18).

Receiving eternal life and possessing eternal life has been the same in every age. It is by faith alone in the Lord Christ (even before He was known by this title) alone.
 

Lon

Well-known member
Thanks for posting you all. I couldn't add much more to the conversation so have refrained from doing posts. I tend to lean toward a covenant view of the scriptures but appreciate the dispensational views. My understanding of 'works' passages is simply that works are the byproduct of one sealed by God. When I read James, etc. I understand these passages to be saying "works will happen in the life of the believer" rather than "If you don't do works, your salvation is lost."
My understanding is that works are a result of God's adoption. They are a litmus test simply because they are what happens in a believer when He is regenerate.
 

Bob Hill

TOL Subscriber
Have you ever thought that man is hindering God’s will? God wants all to be saved.

1 Ti 2:4 says God “desires [Greek, wills] all men to be saved and to come to the knowledge of the truth.” Yet all men are not saved. Even Christians reject the will of God. Everyone of us have.

1 Th 4:3-7 For this is the will of God, your sanctification: that you should abstain from sexual immorality; 4 that each of you should know how to possess his own vessel in sanctification and honor, 5 not in passion of lust, like the Gentiles who do not know God; 6 that no one should take advantage of and defraud his brother in this matter, because the Lord is the avenger of all such, as we also forewarned you and testified. 7 For God did not call us to uncleanness, but in holiness.

Lk 7:30 “But the Pharisees and lawyers rejected the will of God for themselves, not having been baptized by him.” And untold millions have rejected His counsel for them since that time. Though man does reject God’s counsel for himself and does resist His will, no one can resist His counsel as it pertains to His purpose.

Rom 9:19 You will say to me then, “Why does He still find fault? For who has resisted His will?”

John 12:32 “And I, if I am lifted up from the earth, will draw all to Myself.”

Peter wrote under inspiration of God that the believers he minstered to should "make your election sure". 2 Pe 1:10 “Therefore, brethren, be even more diligent to make your call and election sure, for if you do these things you will never stumble.” But Peter was not in the same program of justification by faith alone. Other things were required as well.

For us, we’ve already seen 1 Tim 2:4 says God “desires [wills] all men to be saved and to come to the knowledge of the truth.” But did you know that
2 Pe 3:9 says, “The Lord is not slack concerning His promise, as some count slackness, but is longsuffering toward us, not willing that any should perish but that all should come to repentance.

But there are more things that God tells us. Let’s look at Psalm 32. Psa 32 “Blessed is he whose transgression is forgiven, Whose sin is covered. 2 Blessed is the man to whom the LORD does not impute iniquity, And in whose spirit there is no deceit. 3 When I kept silent, my bones grew old Through my groaning all the day long. 4 For day and night Your hand was heavy upon me; My vitality was turned into the drought of summer. Selah” Why did God allow David to sin? Why didn’t He just prevent it? 5 I acknowledged my sin to You, and my iniquity I have not hidden. I said, “I will confess my transgressions to the LORD,” and You forgave the iniquity of my sin. Selah.

Does God want us to sin, even predestinate us to sin as some say and then forgive us? No, God says in verse 8, “I will instruct you and teach you in the way you should go; I will guide you with My eye.” Now for the clincher, to see what God wants. God does not want mule-like servants. 9 “Do not be like the horse or like the mule, which have no understanding, which must be harnessed with bit and bridle, else they will not come near you.” He wants relationships of mutual affection. He loved us first. He wants us to love Him freely. He doesn’t want us to have a love based on force. That’s no love at all.

Aristotle - Much of today’s Christian theology is based upon Aristotle’s Metaphysics. That pagan philosopher was born in 384 B.C. “There must be something which, existing in full actuality, produces motion without being moved, that something cannot be otherwise than what it is in any respect.” This line of reasoning led to the doctrine of the impassibility of God. This means, nothing can affect God. He continues, “It is clear from the foregoing argument that there is some essential individuality that is eternal and immutable and distinct from perceptible things. . . . Furthermore, this individuality must be unaffected by anything and unalterable . . . . [and finally, after making some comments about the divine mind, he writes,] what it thinks of is what is most divine and most worthy of esteem. And in this It is unchanging, because any change would be for the worse, and would be a kind of motion.” Although this philosophy flies in the face of God’s word, it became the intellectual basis of the church when Augustine and then Calvin was influenced by it. It continues to this day. God can’t feel, can’t change, and knows and determines the whole future. Because of this philosophy, they say He can’t love, can’t suffer, can’t change, and can’t be influenced. Even though the Bible says over and over He does love, He does suffer, He is influenced by prayer, and He does repent or change.

In Christ,
Bob Hill
 
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