Fluidity is not flip-flopping.
Why would you think it is?
My statements are that it is a progressive additive change, not a flip-flop.
You can add additional sexual desires to the ones you already have, but never truly get rid of ones you acquire.
You seemed to be saying that the basic sexual preference is changeable, but perhaps we can now agree that if you start off liking females then that is how it will stay, give or take a few age range modifications, but nobody who exclusively goes for female will ever be able to suddenly choose to be attracted to males, it just doesn't happen, right?
A sexual preference does not require that it is learnt.
Humans do not have the instinctual reactions of other mammals, most of our behavior and preferences are learned from our environment, and that includes sexual preference.
I disagree, we do have instinctive reactions, a baby say instinctively grabs hold, the only difference is that we can sometimes override them by choosing to act on them or not, but a young baby hasn't yet the ability to choose not to grasp.
Why on Earth would there be no instinctive desire to have sex? Why would evolution not have produced that desire instead of leaving it to the vagaries, chance and corruption of experience during life?
Why "paedophiles" has to be used against a context of all homosexuals once again is something I don't as easily want to accept because it is not true and an obvious smear tactic.
It is not a smear tactic.
The similarity between homosexuality and pedophilia is a truth being discovered by modern research.
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Many researchers taking a different view of pedophilia
Like many forms of sexual deviance, pedophilia once was thought to stem from psychological influences early in life. Now, many experts view it as a sexual orientation as immutable as heterosexuality or homosexuality. It is a deep-rooted predisposition — limited almost entirely to men — that becomes clear during puberty and does not change.
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You have nothing in this quote at least other than it is being argued that paedophilia is like a third preference, not that it is exclusively homosexual because clearly that isn't true, did you actually read this?
I can conclude here that sexual preference does generally mean the opposite sex and of a suitable age, but not always, and is as they say in your quote regarding paedophiles (not all homosexuals note) :
"a sexual orientation as immutable as heterosexuality or homosexuality. It is a deep-rooted predisposition — limited almost entirely to men".
How painful is your shot foot btw? :think:
So how again are you not simply smear mongering against all homosexuals?
