KJ-ONLYite claims: Enyart does not believe The Bible is inerrant

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robycop3

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Brandplucked: Do you have an inerrant, inspired and complete Bible? NO. That is your problem; not just a few "archaic" words.

Do YOU have a "final authority" based upon Scriptural evidence? No, you have one based upon guesswork and wishful thinking.

Do YOU have an inerrant Bible version? Yes, according to YOUR standards, which declare that the KJV's errors aren't errors, but "translators' choices" or "happy accidents"...anything but admitting there ARE errors. But, do you REALLY have an inerrant Bible version? Newp. Those booboos you say aren't booboos are still there for all to read.
 

robycop3

Member
Brandplucked: I will only briefly mention the textual issue in this article; there are many places to find out more about that. All Bibles are not translated from the same Greek and Hebrew texts. The NIV, ESV, Holman Christian Standard, and the NASB use a different Greek text than the KJB; they don’t always agree with each other; and their Greek text differs from the KJB text by about 5000 words. There are 17 entire verses missing in the NIV new testament, and even more in the RSV and ESV.

Same ole song-n-dance you've been repeating for years, Will. You generally dodge any criticism of it, and try to avoid responding to any PROOF that shows your views wrong, so I don't expect too much from you here...but that doesn't matter. What DOES matter is that the rest of the readership will see just how phony your KJVO garbage is.

As for the textual issue...Anyone can see, with a little study, that this is not a recent thing at all; such issues were being discussed before the current KJVO myth existed, and they're no closer to resolution than they were in the 1880s. And you have NO EVIDENCE AT ALL to show verses you claim are omitted weren't actually ADDED to some texts. Your argument is without merit.

Scores of times the NIV, ESV, Holman, and the NASB do not follow the Hebrew text, but use the Greek Septuagint, Syriac, or some other source. I have found at least 40 examples where the NKJV does not follow the same Greek text as the KJB, and is different still from the NIV, ESV, Holman, and NASB. None of these translations have the same meaning as the others in hundreds of verses. Which one then is God’s infallible word? I’m convinced it is the King James Bible.

You're "convinced" because you keep telling yourself over & over that the KJVO myth is right. Never mind it has NO Scriptural support. Never mind that every part of it has been proven wrong be empirical evidence. Never mind that the KJVO myth was started by a cult official and pushed by some dishonest authors. Never mind that it's based entirely upon guesswork, hearsay, imagination, opinion, and just plain misinformation. "It's STILL right!"


There is a huge battle going on today about the Bible. We are headed for the falling away, the apostasy, which will occur before the coming of our Lord Jesus Christ in glory and judgment. This is the most biblically ignorant generation of Americans ever, in spite of, or perhaps, BECAUSE OF the modern versions.

Actually, it's because of a shortage of God-fearing people who aren't ashamed to preach the Gospel, and a shortage of hell fire-and-brimstone podium-banging, Bible-waving preachers who remind their audiences that some day, we're ALL gonna die if not "raptured". Nothing to do with Bible versions.

The explosion of multiple-choice, conflicting modern versions has encouraged the student to pick and choose his own preferred readings and has created a tendency to treat every Bible lightly and to look upon none as the final words of God.

WRONG.

Actually, God has made a LOT more things available to today's student. This is part of the general increase of knowledge prophesied to Daniel. God is NOT LIMITED in how he may choose to present His word, so WE shouldn't be limited to just ONE VERSION of all that God's made available for us.

I believe the KJB to be God’s preserved, complete, pure, and inspired words.

And so do I. Where we differ is that you mistakenly guess that the KJV is the ONLY valid version of God's word in English , while I KNOW BETTER, by FACTS, not guesswork.



If I have to choose between a modern, up-to-date language Bible version that omits thousands of God inspired words from the New Testament (as do the NASB, NIV, ESV, Holman),

More guesswork...other versions/texts could just as easily have ADDED them.


that rejects the Hebrew readings in numerous places,

So what?

We've given you the plain example of Isaiah 7:14, where the KJV follows the LXX. Argue all ya want, but the Greek for this verse says"parthenos"(virgin) as the KJV reads, while the Hebrew reads "almah"(young woman) as a coupla other versions read. You may argue till you're blue in the face that almah also means virgin, but it's seldom used in that sense in Hebrew. The usual Hebrew word for virgin is "bathuwlah".


and that teaches false doctrine in several verses,

According to your wild imagination.


or choose the old King James Bible that has a few "archaic words" but teaches the whole truth of God in purity of doctrine, it is a no-brainer.

or refuse to allow some myth that seeks to LIMIT GOD to limit you also. The idea that the KJV is the ONLY valid English Bible version is phony as a football bat, akin to saying, "Ford is the ONLY valid make of car".


I will gladly and thankfully take the Holy Bible that God has set His mark of approval on like no other - the King James Bible. If you don’t have one, get it, read it, believe it, memorize it and hid its words in your heart.

I will gladly and thankfully take the several versions of the Holy Bible that God has caused/allowed to be made in MY language, both old and new, and read/use all of them according to God's providence in making them available. Believe WHAT'S IN THOSE BOOKS instead of any ridiculous man-made theories about any of them. None of those theories are true, while every word in any valid Bible version is true. Believe GOD, not man.

The Lord and Saviour Jesus Christ said in Matthew 24:35, “Heaven and earth shall pass away, but my words shall not pass away.”

Gotta believe that verse according to REALITY. A clear example of jesus' words which DID pass away is His writings in the dust when the woman caught in adultery was brought before Him. Not to mention all the mundane things such as His meals and His carpentry work he mentioned every day...Not to mention His preaching and miracles that are only touched upon in Scripture.

What did NOT pass away was every word Jesus wanted to be part of Scripture.

The Bible itself is not meant to be a book which can be easily understood.

Sez YOU. Pure conjecture, by the King of Guess.


Who can read through the minor prophets and not ask himself: "What is he talking about? What does this mean?"

Who? Anyone who's carefully read the preceeding books. While I don't think hardly anyone reading the Bible through for the first time, any version, understands everything he/she's read, one understands a LOT more if reading a version in his/her own language.

Yet there are many parts of the Bible that even a child can comprehend.

PRAISE THE LORD for THAT!

I do not believe the Bible is supposed to be translated into contemporary street language. The English of the KJB 1611 was not written in "street language" even at that time.

The KJV was written in the best formal everyday English of its day. However, that day was 400 years ago.


God knew beforehand that languages would change and I believe He intended that His word would be placed in a form of language that would be different from that spoken on the street. God's Book is not supposed to read like people on the street talk. It never did.

Yes, God DID know that. And He did NOT retire in 1611. He keeps right on presenting His word in current language forms. The legitimate modern versions are written in an English style that almost every English speaker can understand, same as the KJV was in its time, or the Wycliffe version of some 240 years before the AV.

The King James Bible reads differently from any other book. It is not like a newspaper, nor is it meant to sound like one. The Bible is an ancient book filled with timeless wisdom. I am impressed by the fact that this King James Bible has been around for a long time; it reads differently than any other book; it speaks like no man does in the pulpit, on radio or television, and I have to think about what it is saying. I don't just breeze through it like a tabloid magazine. When I slow down to think about what it says, I find that God speaks to me.

Same with any other valid version.

There seem to be two attitudes towards the KJB - those who want to understand it and defend it, and those who want to criticize and attack it.

You've purposely omitted your OWN attitude...You wanna make the KJV into something it was never intended to be...AN ICON, almost worshipped by some people. The AV translators, in their preface, which is conveniently left outta most current editions, explained what their version was...an English Bible translation, made by their best efforts,, and nothing more.


In Exodus 26:14, “Thou shalt make a covering for the tent of ram's skins dyed red, and a covering of BADGER'S skins". The NKJV, Geneva, Darby, Young’s, Webster's, KJB 21, Third Millenium Bible, Rotherham's Emphatic Bible, and the Spanish all agree with the KJB. The NASB has "PORPOISE skins" while the NIV has "SEA COWS". The RSV and the 2001 ESV both have "GOATSKINS". The Holman says: "MANATEE SKINS". In the wilderness, badger's skins would be a difficult to come by, but how many porpoises (NASB) or sea cows (NIV) , or manatees (Holman) do you think they could have scrounged up?

Will, I could type ten pages exposing your deceptions from your one post above alone, but instead of lulling everyone to sleep, I'll just cite the one example above.

The Hebrew word the KJV renders "badgers' skins" is "tachash", which is a TYPE OF LEATHER, not a species of animal.. it does NOT name the animal whose hide is made into this type of leather. Apparently, tachash could be made from the skins of badgers, porpoises, or several other animals. Anyone who doesn't believe this can simply ASK someone who's proficient in Hebrew. That's much-better than simply picking up a concordance or lexicon. Apparently the AV translators chose "badger" because it was an animal known to them, and was/is common in that area of the world.

Your attempt to pull a "fast one" is once again exposed, Will! You act like some kinda scholar, hoping to fool the people with your mucho words, but we see RIGHT THROUGH YOUR DECEPTIONS. You tried to fool us into believing that some other versions are wrong for not reading "badger" at Ex.26:14, when that's simply not so, since the Hebrew says "leather" instead of the skins of any certain animal species.

Who's to say the Israelis had no porpoise hides? They coulda caught porpoises while still living in Egypt, or the Egyptians coulda given them to the Israelis as a "farewell present".

Sorry, Will, YOU'RE FOILED AGAIN. FACT versus KJVO GUESSWORK. Your doubletalk fools no one.


Those who don't believe any Bible, and more particularly the KJB, is the inspired word of God, frequently criticize the KJB for using words like "to let, prevent, suffer, and conversation". This is a bait and switch tactic, a smokescreen, and a poor excuse to get us to switch to a modern bible version which differs from the KJB both in text and meaning in hundreds of verses.

ACTUALLY, it's a reminder that the KJV's English is no longer current in many places.

The verb "to let" is used in three ways in the KJB. "Let them alone, they be blind leaders of the blind." "planted a vineyard. . .and let it out to husbandmen." The third example is the archaic use of to let meaning to withhold or to hinder.

There are still traces of this meaning today. Webster’s defines the noun "a let" as an obstacle, a hindrance, or a delay. In tennis if a ball hits the net, it is called a let ball. In 2 Thessalonians 2:6-7, "And now ye know what withholdeth that he might be revealed in his time. For the mystery of iniquity doth already work: only he who now letteth, will let, until he be taken out of the way."

Not only does the KJB use the word "let" in the sense of to hinder or withhold, but so also do Coverdale 1535, Bishop's Bible 1568, and the Geneva Bible 1599 has "will let" in the second part of the verse. Even the Revised Version uses "to let" in this sense in Isaiah 43:13.


OF COURSE THEY DO...THEY'RE OLDER VERSIONS! What a rocket scientist you are!

What I mean by bait and switch is the new versions say in effect "Let us clear up the confusion of the KJB and give you a modern rendering." But look at the NKJV, NIV, and NAS. They have updated the word "let" but all three have introduced a private interpretation into the passage by capitalizing certain words and not others (NKJV and NAS), or by adding words not found in any text (NIV).

As if the KJV doesn't do the EXACT SAME THING! Try making "God forbid' from the Greek "me ginomai" in a literal translation. Now, let's destroy your other codwallop:

The NKJV says, "And now you know what is restraining, that he may be revealed in his own time. For the mystery of lawlessness is already at work; only He who now restrains will do so until He is taken out of the way." Do you see how they have capitalized some of the "He"s and not others? They are forcing you to look at the passage in a certain way to understand its meaning. Yet there is a totally different way of looking at the passage, which is obscured by the new versions.

Yes, read the passages IN CONTEXT to see who's REALLY using a "bait-n-switch".

The first "he, his" is lower case because they're referring to the SON OF PERDITION((VERSE 3). The subsequent "He"s are referring to the HOLY SPIRIT. In modern usage, the names, and often the pronouns for the names of any of the Holy Trinity are almost always capitalized. Thus, the NKJV is correct, and YOU ARE NOT! But most of us are used to that by now.

Readers, see how Mr. Kinney tries to DECEIVE you?



These are just a few of the many examples I could give, but they will perhaps give you something to think about. All bibles are not the same and God is not the author of confusion. God's message is complete and not contradictory. If I get conflicting messages from the different versions, they can't all be from God. Satan and man are the ones who pervert the Scriptures.

As I said above, I could type page after page to go into depth and lay bare all of Will's deceptions and falsehoods within his one post above. Either I or someone else has already done that for virtually ALL your deceptions within your "versions comparisons".

As we get nearer the end, when many shall depart from the faith, the falling away will occur, and men will give heed to doctrines of devils,

Which is EXACTLY what the KJVOs have done! Anyone who thinks the KJVO myth is of GOD hasta have rocks in his head.


do you suppose that is the time when the best bibles will be popularly read? When the Son of man cometh, shall he find faith on the earth? Luke 18:8 *

According to the whole chapter, He shall find both faith and unbelief. Try keeping the verses IN CONTEXT for once, Will.



If you want to find rest for your soul, peace of mind and confident faith in the words of the living God, read and believe the Holy Bible God has clearly put His mark on as being His infallible words - the King James Bible.

If you wanna try to LIMIT GOD and think you can keep Him shut up in a box, then buy into the KJVO myth.

Readers, you would do well to not believe a single word Mr. Kinney says. You should see he posts nothing but deceptions, half-truths, guesswork, and the false doctrines of the lying KJVO authors, laced with a large dose of his own imagination. HE IS NOT TELLING YOU THE TRUTH! We shall continue to expose his prevarications as often as he posts them.
 

brandplucked

New member
God's perfect Book

God's perfect Book

Johnthebaptist said:
brandplucked



There is also nothing wrong with the ASV translation "by lasciviousness" sense (aselgeiais) is instrumental Dative.

The KJV was based mainly on Erasmus Greek New Testament. Erasmus only had abut 6 very late manuscripts to work with. There is absolutely no factual evideince he had excess to the vaticanus.

Hi John, I agree there is nothing wrong with the ASV in this particular passage, but there is a whole lot wrong with the ASV in other areas. The ASV is not the same as the NASB. The ASV at least followed the Hebrew readings, but the NASB often rejects the Hebrew Scriptures in many places where the ASV did not. The N.T. texts also differ in many places from the ever changing nasb. The nasb continues to change both its English and its Greek text from one edition to the next.

The simple fact is, John, you do not believe any Bible to be the inspired, inerrant and complete words of God, do you? You still have placed your own mind and understanding as the Final written Authority, just like everybody else who does not believe the King James Bible is the inerrant words of God.

To address a couple other points. JT argues against translating kuriou as God, yet many other Bible translators who are just as learned and trained as he thinks he is, do so in this very passage. The Greek language clearly allows for this to be a legitimate translation.

The Hebrew language also has several meanings found in most bible versions for the simple word "God" or el, elohim. Not everything is as simple as first year Greek would have you think.

There are other Bible versions to add to the list of where they translated Acts 19:20 as "the word of God". Here is an expanded list.

Acts 19:20 Scrivener’s TR reads tou/ Kuri,ou (of the Lord) but the KJV reads “of God.”

This again is a matter of translation, not of following a different text. The word kurios can legitimately be translated as God. The LXX version does this thousands of times.
Not only does the KJB read "God" here, but so do Tyndale, Geneva, Matthew's Bible, Wesley's translation, Bishops' Bible, Wycliffe, the Douay-Rheims version, Lamsa's translation of the Peshitta, Webster's translation, Young's 'literal' translation, the Worldwide English New Testament, the Portuguese O Livro, Green's Modern KJV, the KJV 21, and the Third Millenium Bible.


Jt may not like it, but I really won't lose any sleep over this. He has no inerrant Bible to defend or believe. I and thousands of others do.

Now, John, for this old argument about Erasmus and his "few" manuscripts, may I suggest this article by David Cloud? Erasmus scoured the libraries of Europe long before he began his work on his Greek text. He was very familiar with hundreds of manuscripts, and God used this man, flawed though we all are, as an instrument to eventually bring forth His preserved words to a much larger audience.


http://www.wayoflife.org/fbns/isthereceived.htm

What most of you are missing is the Providence and Sovereignty of God in giving us a perfect Bible. God Himself promised to preserve His words in a Book here on this earth. He either did this, or He lied. I believe God. You believe His pure words are "out there somewhere" mixed up with a bunch of spurious readings, omissions and additions, and the best we can hope for is some sort of ballpark approximation of what He may or may not have said, and the end result is that you do not believe ANY Bible to be the inerrant words of God.

The "bibles" today are getting worse, not better, and fewer and fewer Christians believe any of them to be the inspired, inerrant words of God. It is all part of prophesy being fulfilled before our very eyes. Just as Israel apostacised and went into idolatry, so too does the church go into apostasy and places the mind of man above the infallible words of God.

"He that hath ears to hear, let him hear."



In and by His grace alone,

Will Kinney
 

Johnthebaptist

New member
brandplucked

Hi John, I agree there is nothing wrong with the ASV in this particular passage, but there is a whole lot wrong with the ASV in other areas. The ASV is not the same as the NASB. The ASV at least followed the Hebrew readings, but the NASB often rejects the Hebrew Scriptures in many places where the ASV did not. The N.T. texts also differ in many places from the ever changing nasb. The nasb continues to change both its English and its Greek text from one edition to the next.

There is no inerrant translation. The KJV is by no means inerrant, but you do not execpt the variatons. You convenantly write them off as from corrupt text, which is easy for yo to do with your way of thinking.

Hi John, I agree there is nothing wrong with the ASV in this particular passage, but there is a whole lot wrong with the ASV in other areas. The ASV is not the same as the NASB. The ASV at least followed the Hebrew readings, but the NASB often rejects the Hebrew Scriptures in many places where the ASV did not. The N.T. texts also differ in many places from the ever changing nasb. The nasb continues to change both its English and its Greek text from one edition to the next

The American Standard Version of 1901 was considered the most accurate translation for many years more so than the KJV.

"HebrewText: In the present translation the latest edition of Rudolf Kittel's Biblia Hebraica(Hebrew Bible) has been employed together with the most recent light from lexicography, cognate languages, and the Dead Sea Scrolls. (New American Standard Bible Principles of Translation)

The simple fact is, John, you do not believe any Bible to be the inspired, inerrant and complete words of God, do you? You still have placed your own mind and understanding as the Final written Authority, just like everybody else who does not believe the King James Bible is the inerrant words of God.

No, Will, I base my view of inspiration on the accuracy of the copies of the manuscripts that point to the originals being without error.

To address a couple other points. JT argues against translating kuriou as God, yet many other Bible translators who are just as learned and trained as he thinks he is, do so in this very passage. The Greek language clearly allows for this to be a legitimate translation.

I agree that the Greek word κύριος means that Jesus is God, as you know it is used in the
LXX to translate the אלהים (elohim) for God and יהוה (Yahweh) or (Jehovah). It was also used that way in the first Century. Emperor worship was popular in the Roman Empire and When one said "Ceasar was Lord" they were saying he was deity. For a First Century Christian to say Jesus was Lord could endanger his life, for he was saying that Jesus is My owner , My master, My God.

There are other Bible versions to add to the list of where they translated Acts 19:20 as "the word of God". Here is an expanded list.

Acts 19:20 Scrivener’s TR reads tou/ Kuri,ou (of the Lord) but the KJV reads “of God.”

This again is a matter of translation, not of following a different text. The word kurios can legitimately be translated as God. The LXX version does this thousands of times.
Not only does the KJB read "God" here, but so do Tyndale, Geneva, Matthew's Bible, Wesley's translation, Bishops' Bible, Wycliffe, the Douay-Rheims version, Lamsa's translation of the Peshitta, Webster's translation, Young's 'literal' translation, the Worldwide English New Testament, the Portuguese O Livro, Green's Modern KJV, the KJV 21, and the Third Millenium Bible.

It does not harm to translate "Kurios" God because the meaning of "Kurios includes the deity of Christ. But the Word Kurios also means "He to who a person or thing belongs, about which He has the power of deciding, Maser, Owner. So to say in Acts 19:20 "the Word of the Lord" still refers to it being the Word of God. You are grapping at straws.

Not everything is as simple as first year Greek would have you think.

Well, Will, I had two years of Koine Greek in College and in Seminary I had intermediate Greek and Advance Greek. So I have had several years of New Testament Greek. I have also had Hebrew. How musch Greek and Hebrew have you had.


God Bless
John
 

42ndgen

New member
Hi brandplucked:

You have said:

When people tell us that no translation is perfect, they then tell us we need to go to the Hebrew and the Greek, both of which are far more difficult and archaic than anything found in the King James Bible.

The simple fact of the matter is that most Christians today do not believe ANY Bible or any text in any language IS NOW the inerrant, preserved, inspired and complete word of God.

After all that I said in the article about the changes in texts and meanings found in the modern versions, it is of interest that you would chose to pick up on the minor issue of 200 to 800,000 word comparison to make your case.

Some people cannot see the forest for the trees.

Do you have an inerrant, inspired and complete Bible? NO. That is your problem; not just a few "archaic" words.

I picked the most obvious lie that I had time to deal with. When you just cut and paste articles without really reading them you will post obvious lies like the one I pointed out without even realizing it. And it is most assuredly a lie used to try to establish a solid foundation for KJOnlyism. Solid foundations of truth cannot be built on Lies. The simple fact as I have pointed out eairler and you have not dealt with is the fact that you consider the original language transcripts unreliable full of errors yet that which is translated from them it is now inerrant? Come on that would be like you trying to live an uncompromised life in the Spirit by compromising to the flesh at every turn.
 

Johnthebaptist

New member
Huldrych said:
According to what I read from James D. Price, the AV's NT was largely, but not exclusively, based on Stephanus 1550 (click on the link I gave from kjvonly.org a few posts back). It agrees mostly with Erasmus' texts, but not perfectly, as most TR-Onlyists tend to believe. The TR has never been a monolith.

As far as access to Vaticanus is concerned, I remember reading somewhere that Erasmus was offered Vaticanus to work from, but he refused it, for one reason or another.

Erasmus' texts may be late, but I understand there are a good many patristic quotes that tend to favor the traditional text, meaning those readings were around much earlier than the age of Erasmus' texts suggest.

jth

jth

Her is a good article by Daniel B. Wallace th discusses the patristic fathers. This is a straw with not much substance that KJV Only use in defence of the KJV.

http://www.bible.org/page.asp?page_id=677

Erasmus knew of the Vaticanus but it was in Rome and out of reach to him. Here is a Good article on Erasmus that also deals with the Vaticanus.

http://www.aomin.org/erasmus.html

God Bless
John
 

Johnthebaptist

New member
Huldrych

The KJV people like to think that Erasmus refused th use the Vaticanus because they reject the critical text as corrupt. but the fact is that Erasmus ask his friend in Rome, Bombasius to consult the Vaticanus concerning the Johannine Comma 1John 5:7. When Bombasius checked the Vaticanus and found that the Comma was not in the text he informed Erasmus. Erasmus accepted the reading of the Vaticanus and still did not include the comma. Therefore history shows that Erasmus did not reject the Vaticanus. It was simppy out of his reach.

God Bless
John
 

Huldrych

New member
Thanks for the articles, John

Thanks for the articles, John

Johnthebaptist said:
jth

Her is a good article by Daniel B. Wallace th discusses the patristic fathers. This is a straw with not much substance that KJV Only use in defence of the KJV.

http://www.bible.org/page.asp?page_id=677

That's interesting, John. Thanks for that bit of information. If what Wallace says about scribes making patristic quotations conform to the traditional text, then says a lot about the Catholic Church's influence on the traditional text--(assuming, of course, that the scribes in question were Catholic (which was not said outright--all that was said was "Almost all the copies of these early patristic writers come from the Middle Ages.").

But if that is the case, then the question naturally arises as to why the Vulgate and the traditional text disagree so much.

We were talking about Erasmus' knowledge of the Vaticanus. I also remember reading from somewhere that this manuscript came into Catholic possession as a gift from the bishop (patriarch?) of Constantinople. Knowing the Orthodox church to be the custodians of much that comprises the Byzantine text family, the question of course naturally comes as to why the Vaticanus disagrees with the traditional text as much as it does.

Feel free to refine my statements--I want to know the facts as well as anyone.

jth
 

Clete

Truth Smacker
Silver Subscriber
brandplucked,

I've asked this question before and don't recall having ever gotten an answer, perhaps you will indulge me.

Is it your belief that the KJV is the best translation in the English language and that the rest are sufficiently flawed as to warrant their discontinued use and that therefore the KJV is the only version that should be used because there are no other viable options for English speaking people?

Or is it your belief that the KJV is THE preserved and inspired WORD OF GOD, period. And that all others are perversion of God's word and they should not be used at all. Not necessarily because they are flawed in their translation but simply because they are not the KJV and therefore not the "real" Bible?

Is my question clear? It is sort of a difficult question to formulate. If not let me know and I'll rephrase it.

Assuming my question makes sense and that your answer is the latter of the two options then I would like for you to explain why God chose 17th century English. Why not preserve it in its original language, or in any other language other than English? Or do you believe that God has preserved His word in other languages as well? If so which ones and why and if not, why not?

These questions have never been addressed in any meaningful way whenever I have asked them. It seems a crippling deficiency in the logic of those who hold to the 'KJV only' position.

God bless you and I look forward to your response.

Resting in Him,
Clete
 

Johnthebaptist

New member
jth

We were talking about Erasmus' knowledge of the Vaticanus. I also remember reading from somewhere that this manuscript came into Catholic possession as a gift from the bishop (patriarch?) of Constantinople. Knowing the Orthodox church to be the custodians of much that comprises the Byzantine text family, the question of course naturally comes as to why the Vaticanus disagrees with the traditional text as much as it does.

Feel free to refine my statements--I want to know the facts as well as anyone.

The Vaticanus disagrees from the traditional text because it is earlier. The traditional or Byzantine text is later which has allowed more time for copist errors and glosses. This is why the traditional text varies form the critical or earlier text. yet all in all the variations in manuscripts is minute when compared to the whole. Yet the earlier critical text reveals many variations from the KJV. Which show that the KJV is trustworthy but not inerrant. the KJV Only people deny this.

God Bless
John
 

robycop3

Member
Hi, Clete.

I have asked Mr. Kinney many times for SCRIPTURAL SUPPORT for his KJVO myth, knowing it's but a rhetorical question, as I know there's NO scripture supporting such a position, with even the slightest hint. In fact, Scripture leans AGAINST any one-version-only position PERIOD. The New Testament contains many OT quotes that match the GREEK translations of the OT instead of the Masoretic Text or other old Hebrew sources. When these quotes are translated, along with the LXX and Masoretic Text, into a common language such as English , the Greek quotes in the NT and the Hebrew Scriptures of the OT do not match. WHICH IS RIGHT? All anyone need do is, in the KJV, compare Isaiah 61:1-3 and Isaiah 42-7-8 with what JESUS READ ALOUD from Isaiah in Luke 4:16-21. If the quotes from JESUS HIMSELF isn't enough, the skeptics can go in the KJV to Isaiah 53:7-8 and compare it with Acts 8:32-33.(Anyone making these comparisons for him/herself, be sure to read the ENTIRE CHAPTERS named, to place the specific cited verses in their proper context.)

Does anyone care to tell JESUS that He was reading aloud from a "perversion" or a corrupt text?

But I'm getting off the subject of this post , which is, Mr. Kinney's failure to deal with the fact that he subscribes to a myth about Scripture that's not mentioned anywhere in Scripture by the slightest implication, let alone empirically. His standard answers for our failure to subscribe to his false doctrine is, "You have no final authority" or "You have no inerrant Bible". Guess the terms "poppycock'' and "false doctrine" are over his head.
 

brandplucked

New member
God's preserved words

God's preserved words

Clete said:
brandplucked,

I've asked this question before and don't recall having ever gotten an answer, perhaps you will indulge me.

Is it your belief that the KJV is the best translation in the English language and that the rest are sufficiently flawed as to warrant their discontinued use and that therefore the KJV is the only version that should be used because there are no other viable options for English speaking people?

Or is it your belief that the KJV is THE preserved and inspired WORD OF GOD, period. And that all others are perversion of God's word and they should not be used at all. Not necessarily because they are flawed in their translation but simply because they are not the KJV and therefore not the "real" Bible?

Is my question clear? It is sort of a difficult question to formulate. If not let me know and I'll rephrase it.

Assuming my question makes sense and that your answer is the latter of the two options then I would like for you to explain why God chose 17th century English. Why not preserve it in its original language, or in any other language other than English? Or do you believe that God has preserved His word in other languages as well? If so which ones and why and if not, why not?

These questions have never been addressed in any meaningful way whenever I have asked them. It seems a crippling deficiency in the logic of those who hold to the 'KJV only' position.

God bless you and I look forward to your response.

Resting in Him,
Clete


Hi Clete, my position is rather a combination of option one and two. I believe the King James Bible is the only Bible in English, and probably in all other languages as well, that is today the perfect, inerrant, complete and infallible words of God.

All other English versions are corrupt to varying degrees and are not the true Holy Bible. God can and does still use them, but they are not His perfect words nor are they pure Bibles. People can use whatever they want, but the undeniable fact is that more and more Christians are openly admitting that they do not believe any Bible or any text in any language is now the inerrant words of God.

In the last part you ask "why God chose 17th century English. Why not preserve it in its original language, or in any other language other than English? Or do you believe that God has preserved His word in other languages as well? If so which ones and why and if not, why not?"

To answer your question, it is obvious and well known that God did not preserve His words in any particular and identifiable "original language" manuscript. NOBODY claims to have the perfect words of God in any particular Hebrew or Greek copy. - Nobody.

God sees the end from the beginning and He knew how the English language would become the universal language of the last days, and how He would use English and American missionaries in the modern missionary movement from the late 1700's to the mid 1900's to spread His word to the nations. All these missionaries used either the KJB or the texts that underlie this Bible to take His word to the nations and translate the Bible into other languages.

As far as I know, no other Bible is the perfect word of God except the King James Bible. Others I know of are very good translations, and others are worse, but we do not need to have a perfect Bible in order to become Christians. The gospel is found even in the worst of versions out there and God can use them.

The central issue today is: "Is The Bible the inerrant, inspired and complete word of God?" Most Christians do not believe any Bible is. This is all part of the falling away from the faith predicted in the Bible itself.


John the baptist and jth, and roby, Logos, Bob Enyart and a whole bunch of others here do not believe any particular Bible or Hebrew or Greek text on this earth is now today the perfect words of God.

Some of these men like to point out articles by people like Daniel Wallace. This guy is so off the wall, it is unbelievable. He is making his own bible version called the NET bible. It disagrees in both text and meaning from ALL others, including their nasb, niv, esv, etc. He freely admits to emending or changing the Hebrew texts in many parts of his "bible", and comes up with absurd meanings that contradict all other modern versions.

None of these guys agrees with anybody else in what texts they think are the right ones nor in how to translate them. They all disagree with each other. It is just like in the days of the judges recorded in the Holy Bible - "In those days there was no king in Israel; every man did that which was right in his own eyes." Judges 21:25.

Will K
 

brandplucked

New member
The Myth of the LXX

The Myth of the LXX

robycop3 said:
Hi, Clete.

I have asked Mr. Kinney many times for SCRIPTURAL SUPPORT for his KJVO myth, knowing it's but a rhetorical question, as I know there's NO scripture supporting such a position, with even the slightest hint. In fact, Scripture leans AGAINST any one-version-only position PERIOD. The New Testament contains many OT quotes that match the GREEK translations of the OT instead of the Masoretic Text or other old Hebrew sources. When these quotes are translated, along with the LXX and Masoretic Text, into a common language such as English , the Greek quotes in the NT and the Hebrew Scriptures of the OT do not match. WHICH IS RIGHT? All anyone need do is, in the KJV, compare Isaiah 61:1-3 and Isaiah 42-7-8 with what JESUS READ ALOUD from Isaiah in Luke 4:16-21. If the quotes from JESUS HIMSELF isn't enough, the skeptics can go in the KJV to Isaiah 53:7-8 and compare it with Acts 8:32-33.(Anyone making these comparisons for him/herself, be sure to read the ENTIRE CHAPTERS named, to place the specific cited verses in their proper context.)

Does anyone care to tell JESUS that He was reading aloud from a "perversion" or a corrupt text?

Hi all, there are answers to the things Roby keeps bringing up about the alleged LXX and the quotes in the New Testament. I have written several articles about the myth of the LXX quoting from many people who are not even KJB only. There was no such animal.

Here is one of my articles dealing with the two examples Roby continually brings up. See if your view is consistent with the evidence.

http://www.geocities.com/brandplucked/NoLXXThree.html

From there, you can access the other articles dealing with the LXX issue. Please go to the first one, and find out more about this huge lie concerning a pre-Christian, authoritative and widely used Greek translation of the O.T. Scriptures that supposedly was quoted by the Lord Jesus and the apostles.

Will Kinney
 

Huldrych

New member
Agreed.

Agreed.

Johnthebaptist said:
jth

The Vaticanus disagrees from the traditional text because it is earlier. The traditional or Byzantine text is later which has allowed more time for copist errors and glosses. This is why the traditional text varies form the critical or earlier text. yet all in all the variations in manuscripts is minute when compared to the whole. Yet the earlier critical text reveals many variations from the KJV. Which show that the KJV is trustworthy but not inerrant. the KJV Only people deny this.

I'm still unsure about your conclusions regarding traditional text vs. critical (I still tend to favor the Majority Text view myself), but this much I know for sure--I've seen God move powerfully in congregations that use Bibles based on both; I've seen extremely dry congregations that used one Bible (crit/trad text) or another. I've known some very upright saints that used one or another; I've seen heretics that used one or another.

This much is also certain--I'm not going to let the issue divide us, either, regardless of what we think the most accurate family is.

I will most certainly agree with you on the point that finding your Bible trustworthy--even if it contains some errors--is paramount.


jth
 

Johnthebaptist

New member
we jth

I'm still unsure about your conclusions regarding traditional text vs. critical (I still tend to favor the Majority Text view myself), but this much I know for sure--I've seen God move powerfully in congregations that use Bibles based on both; I've seen extremely dry congregations that used one Bible (crit/trad text) or another. I've known some very upright saints that used one or another; I've seen heretics that used one or another.

This much is also certain--I'm not going to let the issue divide us, either, regardless of what we think the most accurate family is.

I will most certainly agree with you on the point that finding your Bible trustworthy--even if it contains some errors--is paramount

I would encourage you to read Daniel Wallaces article on the Majority and Critical text. What we can praise the Lord for is that all the manuscripts both Byzantine and Alexanderian have a very high degree of accuracy. So the text for the the KJV as well as the critical text are highly accurate. The variations are minute. The KJV is completely trust worthy, but not infalliable as no translation is. I preach from the KJV most of the time because my people prefer it. Bu I feel just as much of the witness of the Spirit preaching from the NASV. All translations have their strong points and weakness.

God Bless
John
 

Johnthebaptist

New member
brandplucked

Will, are you saying the Septuagint never existed? It is a historical fact that it existed. It was translated in Alexandria Egypt. The People had become Greek speaking because of the conquest of Alexander the Great and needed to translate the OLd Testament into Greek. Any Bible college Student or 1st year seminary student knows that.
 

Clete

Truth Smacker
Silver Subscriber
brandplucked said:
Hi Clete, my position is rather a combination of option one and two. I believe the King James Bible is the only Bible in English, and probably in all other languages as well, that is today the perfect, inerrant, complete and infallible words of God.
Probably? You mean there may exist more than one "perfect, inerrant, complete and infallible word of God"?

All other English versions are corrupt to varying degrees and are not the true Holy Bible. God can and does still use them, but they are not His perfect words nor are they pure Bibles. People can use whatever they want, but the undeniable fact is that more and more Christians are openly admitting that they do not believe any Bible or any text in any language is now the inerrant words of God.
Who cares? If what you say is true, we don't need a "perfect, inerrant, complete and infallible word of God".

In the last part you ask "why God chose 17th century English. Why not preserve it in its original language, or in any other language other than English? Or do you believe that God has preserved His word in other languages as well? If so which ones and why and if not, why not?"

To answer your question, it is obvious and well known that God did not preserve His words in any particular and identifiable "original language" manuscript. NOBODY claims to have the perfect words of God in any particular Hebrew or Greek copy. - Nobody.
Yes, I know that, I'm asking you why? Why, if there was a need for a "perfect, inerrant, complete and infallible word of God", why allow the originals to vanish permanently into ancient history?

God sees the end from the beginning and He knew how the English language would become the universal language of the last days, and how He would use English and American missionaries in the modern missionary movement from the late 1700's to the mid 1900's to spread His word to the nations. All these missionaries used either the KJB or the texts that underlie this Bible to take His word to the nations and translate the Bible into other languages.
Are those translations perversion as well? If not, why not? If they are then why do you give your tacit approval of their use?
Further, God could have whatever language he wants to become the universal language if in fact there is going to be one. Further still, English is certain not it. Not only is English not anywhere near a universal language but way less than even a simple majority of people speak English and most of those who do have the King James Version of the Bible to thank for it.
And lastly, God confused the languages at Babylon remember? He is not going to be party to undoing that act until the evil of humanity is put down permanently. This idea of an anticipated universal language is not Biblical. It is total conjecture on your part and cannot be substantiated at all.
So this explanation of yours in left wanting in about every conceivable way; you even admit that other viable versions of the Bible exist yourself, why should we believe you about the KJV being the only "perfect, inerrant, complete and infallible word of God", if you don't believe it yourself?

As far as I know, no other Bible is the perfect word of God except the King James Bible. Others I know of are very good translations, and others are worse, but we do not need to have a perfect Bible in order to become Christians. The gospel is found even in the worst of versions out there and God can use them.
If we do not need it to be saved, why do we need it at all?

The central issue today is: "Is The Bible the inerrant, inspired and complete word of God?" Most Christians do not believe any Bible is. This is all part of the falling away from the faith predicted in the Bible itself.
Unfalsifiable. You cannot substantiate this claim at all. You may as well be making it up, and I for one believe you are.

John the baptist and jth, and roby, Logos, Bob Enyart and a whole bunch of others here do not believe any particular Bible or Hebrew or Greek text on this earth is now today the perfect words of God.
So what? I'm serious, so what?

Some of these men like to point out articles by people like Daniel Wallace. This guy is so off the wall, it is unbelievable. He is making his own bible version called the NET bible. It disagrees in both text and meaning from ALL others, including their nasb, niv, esv, etc. He freely admits to emending or changing the Hebrew texts in many parts of his "bible", and comes up with absurd meanings that contradict all other modern versions.
So you are now using these perverted Bibles as evidence that Mr. Wallace is a fraud? I thought the perverted Bibles were fraudulent! You can't have it both ways. Either they are fraudulent or they aren't, which is it?

None of these guys agrees with anybody else in what texts they think are the right ones nor in how to translate them. They all disagree with each other. It is just like in the days of the judges recorded in the Holy Bible - "In those days there was no king in Israel; every man did that which was right in his own eyes." Judges 21:25.

Will K
Well this is just the point isn't it? How is it that you know for a fact that the KJV translators got is exactly right? Especially since, as you have admitted yourself, you have no originals to compare it with?

One more question for you. Why do you suppose that God waited 1500 years to finally get the Bible written down correctly? I mean I assume the originals lasted a little while but they sure didn't last 1400 years and so what happened to all those people who didn't have a "perfect, inerrant, complete and infallible word of God"? Why, if such a thing is necessary, would God have left the world without it for more than a millennium?

Resting in Him,
Clete
 

brandplucked

New member
The huge Myth about the LXX

The huge Myth about the LXX

Johnthebaptist said:
brandplucked

Will, are you saying the Septuagint never existed? It is a historical fact that it existed. It was translated in Alexandria Egypt. The People had become Greek speaking because of the conquest of Alexander the Great and needed to translate the OLd Testament into Greek. Any Bible college Student or 1st year seminary student knows that.


John, you have been brainwashed by your seminary training. I know exactly where you are coming from. There are hundreds of sites out there that all tell us about this supposed pre-Christian LXX that allegedly was quoted by the Lord Jesus and the apostles. This is a lie on the level of Evolution. Instead of giving us the usual song and dance routine about the so called LXX, I suggest you actually go to my site and read the articles and examples I have documented about the myth of the LXX.

http://www.geocities.com/brandplucked/NoLXXOne.html

You still have no inerrant Bible. You confess no translation is perfect, and all have weaknesses and strengths. Guess who becomes the Final Authority with your view? Why, surprise, it's YOU. If you know where all the strengths and weaknesses are, then why don't you write your own bible version? It may be a best seller and you will be rich and famous.

John, regarding the Bible version issue, you are a blind guide of the blind. You keep referring to this puffed up buffoon Daniel Wallace as though he were your hero and guide. The guy has no clue and certainly does not believe The Bible IS the inerrant word of God. You guys preach from "bibles" you don't even believe are the infallible words of God.

You got your mind reamed and your money stolen at seminary, and now your spreading your "No Bible is inspired" poison.

"He that hath ears to hear, let him hear."

Will K
 

brandplucked

New member
God's preserved words

God's preserved words

Hi Clete, just a couple of short comments on your post.



Clete said:
Probably? You mean there may exist more than one "perfect, inerrant, complete and infallible word of God"?

I am not aware of any others than the King James Bible.


Clete says: "Who cares? If what you say is true, we don't need a "perfect, inerrant, complete and infallible word of God".

Clete, it looks like you share a lot of the same attitude as that of Logos who says: "Who the hell cares?"

This is where Christianity is headed. You don't care if the Bible is totally true or not. "It is just another flawed religious book on an equal level with the Koran, the Bagavad Gita and the book of Urantia. Hey, they all lead to God, right? No one has a corner on truth."




Clete asks: "Yes, I know that, I'm asking you why? Why, if there was a need for a "perfect, inerrant, complete and infallible word of God", why allow the originals to vanish permanently into ancient history?"

I guess you will have to take this up with God when you see Him.


One more question for you. Why do you suppose that God waited 1500 years to finally get the Bible written down correctly? I mean I assume the originals lasted a little while but they sure didn't last 1400 years and so what happened to all those people who didn't have a "perfect, inerrant, complete and infallible word of God"? Why, if such a thing is necessary, would God have left the world without it for more than a millennium?

Resting in Him,
Clete


Clete, may I suggest you read some more articles on my site? I have already addressed this question. God has always had His perfect words here on this earth. If not, then He lied, and I for one do not believe God ever lied.

http://www.geocities.com/brandplucked/before1611.html


In and by His sovereign grace alone,

Will K
 

robycop3

Member
More KJVO babble and guesswork

More KJVO babble and guesswork

Brandplucked: my position is rather a combination of option one and two. I believe the King James Bible is the only Bible in English, and probably in all other languages as well, that is today the perfect, inerrant, complete and infallible words of God.

Never mind Mr. Kinney cannot prove a word he says....we're supposed to believe his bunk anyway. Never mind that the KJV itself doesn't support his position.

All other English versions are corrupt to varying degrees and are not the true Holy Bible. God can and does still use them, but they are not His perfect words nor are they pure Bibles.

Never mind Mr. Kinney's "proof " consists of "It aint the KJV so it aint right".


People can use whatever they want, but the undeniable fact is that more and more Christians are openly admitting that they do not believe any Bible or any text in any language is now the inerrant words of God.

Actually, his "fact" is VERY deniable. The TRUTH is, that fewer & fewer people are buying the KJVO myth, or sticking with it when they study it and see how false it is.

In the last part you ask "why God chose 17th century English. Why not preserve it in its original language, or in any other language other than English? Or do you believe that God has preserved His word in other languages as well? If so which ones and why and if not, why not?"

To answer your question, it is obvious and well known that God did not preserve His words in any particular and identifiable "original language" manuscript. NOBODY claims to have the perfect words of God in any particular Hebrew or Greek copy. - Nobody.

But Mr. Kinney says his KJV is perfect, despite his having NOTHING with which to compare it. And the KJV was made from Greek and Hebrew mss, with a little Aramaic tossed in. Please take note of Will's DOUBLE STANDARD...He claims the KJV is perfect, but that the mss from which it was made are NOT perfect. Smacks of double standards & RUCKMANISM to me.

COMMON SENSE says God spoke to His chosen penmen in THEIR languages, & that they wrote in their own languages. He spoke in either Proto-Hebrew or Egyptian to Moses. He spoke in later hebrew to Malachi. He most likely spoke in Greek to John on Patmos.

God sees the end from the beginning and He knew how the English language would become the universal language of the last days, and how He would use English and American missionaries in the modern missionary movement from the late 1700's to the mid 1900's to spread His word to the nations.

While God can do ANYTHING, Mr. Kinney is crediting God with something He didn't do. While English is widely used, no more than 1/6 of the world's population use it. he's simply trying to invent another excuse for his KJVO myth.


All these missionaries used either the KJB or the texts that underlie this Bible to take His word to the nations and translate the Bible into other languages.

SOME...but certainly not ALL. I believe Huldrych can shed some light on this fairy tale.

As far as I know, no other Bible is the perfect word of God except the King James Bible.

Then you don't know very far. And while you won't admit it, you KNOW, deep down inside, that the KJV isn't perfect. We've repeatedly pointed out some of its goofs, while you've tried to spin them off. The rest of the readers see right through your smokescreen.

But the KJV is perfect...perfect for GOD'S INTENDED USE of it...as are the NIV,NASV, NKJV, HCSV, geneva Bible, Tyndale's Bible, Wycliffe's Bible, and several others.


Others I know of are very good translations, and others are worse, but we do not need to have a perfect Bible in order to become Christians. The gospel is found even in the worst of versions out there and God can use them.

The central issue today is: "Is The Bible the inerrant, inspired and complete word of God?" Most Christians do not believe any Bible is. This is all part of the falling away from the faith predicted in the Bible itself.


Then please show us any translation that is 100% perfect.


John the baptist and jth, and roby, Logos, Bob Enyart and a whole bunch of others here do not believe any particular Bible or Hebrew or Greek text on this earth is now today the perfect words of God.

So? Just a coupla paragraphs back, YOU said NOBODY claims to have a perfect Greek or Hebrew edition. If THAT'S true, how can anyone but a LIAR claim to have a perfect English version?

Some of these men like to point out articles by people like Daniel Wallace. This guy is so off the wall, it is unbelievable. He is making his own bible version called the NET bible. It disagrees in both text and meaning from ALL others, including their nasb, niv, esv, etc. He freely admits to emending or changing the Hebrew texts in many parts of his "bible", and comes up with absurd meanings that contradict all other modern versions.

Actually, it disagrees w/your KJVO myth more than anything else.

None of these guys agrees with anybody else in what texts they think are the right ones nor in how to translate them. They all disagree with each other. It is just like in the days of the judges recorded in the Holy Bible - "In those days there was no king in Israel; every man did that which was right in his own eyes." Judges 21:25.

So YOU'RE presenting the end-all, be-all solution, from a man-made myth started by a cult official? Shoot, you can't even get around the problem of the LACK OF SCRIPTURAL SUPPORT for your tall tales.
 
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