Haha, that's great, I hope people do go to that third link and see how your theory was hammered into oblivion from right here in this thread.
Jesus SEPARATE from Jehovah; calls Jehovah "my God."
- Thread starter KingdomRose
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Haha, that's great, I hope people do go to that third link and see how your theory was hammered into oblivion from right here in this thread.
(7) Claiming He has rebutted someone, while fully leaving all posted scripture towards him... un-refuted by anything other than tactic 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 or any combination of them... or all of them.
God's Truth
New member
There is a new law, it is our old law with some changes.
Hebrews 7:12 For when the priesthood is changed, the law must be changed also.
It is you who is ignoring all the refutations and claiming "victory". It's childish and that is why I stopped responding to you. Then, when I stopped repeating the same refutations which you were clearly ignoring, you seized the opportunity and claimed "victory" again just because you managed to get the same rubbish in one more time were I did not respond. Again, it's childish, grow up.
In fact you locked this call out thread with my name in the title so that I can neither respond nor go back into it and quote the things on the very first page where you were refuted:
Link to over 50,000 characters exposing Daqqs Deceit and theological errors that he pushes continually
What are you so afraid of, dear coward? :chuckle:
Lol, got your revolving hat turned the wrong way dear Modalist coward? I thought you said Nameless was no more? I distinctly remember the words, "R.I.P Nameless.In.Grace", as if you were retiring that entity. But I see that one also is still with you too. :chuckle:
You do know how to open more than one web browsing tab at a time... right?
Here's the link to the post and your a-typical shenanigans. Copy and paste works for the scripture.
Also, there's that other thread you checked out and had zip to say. Better bring scripture, and no twisting through language. Better answer to all 66 and keep your other stuff out.
Start this again and it will end worse than before. I'm not doing this for myself. Hint.
Link to Core expression of what Daqq Rejects
Link to Daqqs Deceptive Tactics and a single example of thousands that Daqq can't answer with scriptural integrity
Link to over 50,000 characters exposing Daqqs Deceit and theological errors that he pushes continually
You've already been given all the foundational answers and you rejected the truth. So what. I gave you what I had already: we cannot go any further. How can you not understand? If you reject foundational things you cannot proceed and neither will you proceed until you repent and turn your heart back toward the Father, (and stop saying "Jesus is YHWH" because YHWH is the Father, as has been shown to you many times from the scripture, DUH!).
Evil. Eye <(1)> Wrote.......I will address each of your scriptures when I have time. But for now, do you believe God came in Flesh by the Holy Spirit being married to humanity within Mary's womb?
S-word.........You have two questions there, the first being, “Do I believe that our God, the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob, came in the flesh, and the answer is ‘YES.’ He descended upon the man Jesus as he came up out of the baptismal waters of the Jordan, and filled him with his spirit, as the heavenly voice was heard to say; “You are my son, ‘THIS DAY’ I have begotten thee.”
Deuteronomy 18: 18; YHVH, the God of Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob, says to Moses; "I will send them a prophet like you from among their own people; I will tell him what to say, and he will tell the people everything I command. He will speak in my name etc.
Who is the prophet that the God/JHWH is referring to here?
Peter confirms that Jesus was that man, when in reference to Jesus he says in. Acts 3: 22; For Moses said; "The Lord your God will send you a prophet, just as he sent me, and he will be one of your own people, etc."
Do you believe the words of Peter?
KJV, Acts 3:19-20; "Repent ye therefore, and be converted, that your sins may be blotted out, when the times of refreshing shall come from the presence of the Lord; 20And he shall send Jesus Christ, which before was preached unto you:
Catholic Study Edition , GNB: Repent then and turn to God (Not Jesus) so that he will forgive your sins. If you do, times of spiritual strength will come from the Lord, and He will send Jesus, who is the Messiah that he has already CHOSEN for you.
The man Jesus, was chosen and made both Lord and saviour by "WHO I AM/JHWH".
Did the people of his day believe that he was the Lord, the God of Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob. The God of our ancestors? No, they did not, for on the day of his triumphant entry into Jerusalem, the people escorting him cried out, "BLESSED IS HE WHO COMES IN THE NAME OF THE LORD" Verifying that they believed Jesus to be the one that God had promised that he would choose from among the Israelites, and send to the people to speak in his name.
Jesus who admits that he spoke not one word on his own authority, but only that which he was commanded to say by our Lord God and saviour, says in John 5: 24; "Whoever hear my words (The words that he was commanded to say) and believes in "HIM" who sent me, has eternal life.
You must believe in "HIM" who chose Jesus from among the Israelites and sent him to speak in his name, in order to inherit eternal life.
John 14: 24; "And the word which you hear is not mine, but the father's who sent me.
Whose words were these in reference to the body of Jesus which had been filled by the spirit of the Lord that had descended upon him in the form of a dove?
"Destroy this temple, and in three days I will raise it up?"
If those were the words of the man Jesus, we would expect to see that Jesus raised himself from death, but if they were the words of the Lord who filled the man Jesus with his spirit and chose him to speak in his name, then they would have been the words that the Lord commanded his obedient servant Jesus to speak, and we would expect to see that it was the Lord who raised the man Jesus to life, as seen in...............
Acts 17: 31; For He (The Lord) has fixed a day in which he will judge the whole world with justice by means of a MAN he has CHOSEN. He has given proof of this to everyone by raising that MAN from death.
Acts 5: 30; The God of our fathers raised up Jesus, whom you slew and hanged on a tree.
Acts 13: 30; But God raised him from the dead: and he was seen many days of them which came up with him from Galilee, etc.
1st Corinthians 6: 14; And God has both raised up the Lord, and will also raise up us by his own power.
2nd Corinthians 1: 9; But we had the sentence of death in ourselves, that we should not trust in ourselves, but in God which raiseth the dead.
2nd Corinthians 4: 14; knowing that he who raised the Lord Jesus will raise us also with Jesus and bring us with you into his presence.
Do you believe in the supremacy of scripture?
Oh deary, deary me, it looks like I will have to start another post to answer your second question; “The Holy Spirit being married to humanity within Mary's womb?”
Continued from post #1049.
Evil. Eye. <(1)> Wrote.....Do you believe Holy Spirit being married to humanity within Mary's womb?”
S-word NO! No and a thousand times NO.
The Amplified Version: Galatians 4: 29; “Yet at that time, the child born according to the flesh (Ishmael) despised and persecuted him (Isaac) who was born of God’s promise and the workings/power of The Holy Spirit.
Isaac, the son of Abraham and his half sister Sarah, who were both sired by the one father, 'TERAH' of different mothers, and was born according to the workings/power of the Holy Spirit, was a prototype of the man Jesus.
He, Isaac, was born of God’s promise, offered up as a sacrifice by his father on the very spot that Jesus was offered up, but he didn’t die, because a sacrificial offering that God had prepared, died in his place. An Angel, who was a man that ate of the meal offered to him by Abraham, told Sarah that she was going to become pregnant and bear the child of God’s Promise.
Likewise Jesus, the son of Mary and her half brother Joseph the son of Heli, who was also the father of Mary, was born according to the promise of the Lord, and according to the workings of the Holy Spirit, Mary was informed by a man/an angel, that she would become pregnant and bear a descendant of King David. He, Jesus, was also offered up as a sacrifice, by his father who had descended upon him in the form of a dove, and said; “You are my son, THIS DAY I have begotten thee.”
But I will explain this in greater detail, when you have received the information that will enable you to comprehend the truth as revealed in the Holy Scriptures.
Was Jesus born of a virgin birth?
Mary was a virgin right up until the act by which she conceived her firstborn son Jesus, who was sired by Joseph ben Heli. See Luke 3: 23.
Isaiah 7: 14; Correct Hebrew Translation: Therefore, the Lord, of His own, shall give you a sign; behold, the "YOUNG WOMAN" is with child, and she shall bear a son, and she shall call his name Immanuel.
The emphasis of this prophecy should be in the fact that the child would be called "IMMANUEL=GOD IS WITH US." For the man Jesus was the chosen earthly host body through whom the Lord would reveal himself to us. Jesus who was filled with the spirit of the Lord which descended upon him in the form of a dove, as the voice of the Lord was heard to say, “You are my son, ‘THIS DAY=TODAY’ I have ‘BEGOTTEN THEE=TODAY I HAVE BECOME YOUR FATHER’”.
Isaiah 7: 14; Erroneous KJV Translation: Therefore the Lord Himself will give you a sign: Behold, "THE VIRGIN" shall conceive and bear a Son, and shall call His name Immanuel.
The Greek word Parthenos used in Matthew 1:23 ; is ambiguous but the Hebrew term "Almah" that is erroneously translated in some Christian bibles as "virgin" is absolute, and according to Young's Analytical Concordance to the Bible, the Hebrew term "Almah," carries the meaning, (Concealment---unmarried female.)
Go to "A Dictionary of Biblical Tradition in English Literature," by David Jeffery.
There you will find written, "Many scholars consider the new Revised Standard Version of the King James translation, which is probably the most widely used version of the English bible today, and considered by most modern scholars to be to be the most accurate translation of the Old Testament. It follows the modern consensus in translating "Almah" as "Young Woman" in Isaiah 7: 14.
In 1973, an ecumenical edition of RSV was approved by both Protestant and Catholic hierarchies, called the common bible. As a matter of fact, I have in front of me, A New English Translation of the Bible, published in 1970 and approved by the council of churches in England, Scotland, Wales, the Irish council of churches, the London Society of Friends, and the Methodist and Presbyterian churches of England. And there in the RSV we read in Isaiah 7: 14; "A young Woman is with child, and she will bear a son." I also have before me The Good News Bible, catholic Study Edition, with imprimatur by Archbishop John Whealon: and on turning to Isaiah 7: 14; It says here, "A young woman who is pregnant will have a son, etc."
But even after admitting that the prophet Isaiah never did say that a virgin would conceive etc, but rather, "A YOUNG WOMAN" who is pregnant will have a son," in Matthew 1: 22; concerning the birth of the child Jesus, the church continues to propagate its filthy lie, by saying; "Now all this happened in order to make come true what the Lord had said through the prophet (Isaiah)" they here claim that Isaiah said; "A virgin who is pregnant, etc," which obviously he didn't and they admit that he didn't.
In translating the Hebrew words of the prophet Isaiah, that an "Almah" an "unmarried female" is with child and will bear a son," into Greek, which unlike the Hebrew language, does not have a specific term for "virgin," the authors of the Septuagint and Matthew correctly used the Greek word "Parthenos," which carries a basic meaning of "girl," or unmarried youth, and denotes "virgin" only by implication.
A more accurate rendering of the Greek "parthenos" is a person who does not have a regular sexual partner, a widow with a family of children, would be a "parthenos".
In reference to Hanna who nursed the baby Jesus before Mary performed the ceremony of purification, it is said that Anna was a prophetess who earnestly hoped for the coming of the Messiah, she was an old woman of 84 and had been a widow for seven years, never remarrying, but remaining in her parthenia=unmarried and sexually chaste state, ect, She was a parthenos, but that does not mean that she was a virgin.
To translate something from the Hebrew to the Greek, or from any language to another, one must not lose the essence of the original, and the original was, that "A young woman was with child." Therefore, as the greater majority of churches now admit, that the words of Isaiah, were "A young woman who is pregnant will have a son, etc." Matthew 1: 23; should now read, "Now all this happened to make come true what the Lord had said through Isaiah, "A young woman who is pregnant will have a son, etc." Because they all now admit that those were the words of Isaiah 7: 14.
The Septuagint was a translation of the Hebrew Old Testament into Greek, by Hebrews in Alexandria, some two hundred years before the days of Jesus and they like Matthew, were forced to use the Greek term, "Parthenos" in translating the Hebrew "Almah" Because there was no other word in that Language that they could use for maiden, or young girl, etc.
"Parthenos," was often used in reference to non-virgins who had never been married. Homer uses it in reference to unmarried girls who were no longer virgins, and Homer was the standard textbook for learning Greek all throughout antiquity, so any writer of Greek, including Matthew, who translated Isaiah's words, that (An unmarried woman would be with child etc) while being well aware of this words versatile and indefinite meaning; was in no way implying that Mary was a virgin.
For the Hebrew has a specific term for "virgin," "Bethulah" which word is used in every instance in the Old Testament where a woman who has never had sexual intercourse with a man is referred to, which is obviously not the case with the pregnant unmarried woman/Almah, who is mentioned in Isaiah 7:14.
In Pergamos, as one of the final stages in the quest for enlightenment, the initiated adept would participate in sex with the Temple Virgin/Parthenos.
"Parthenos" did not mean possessing an intact hymen. A Parthenos was simply an unmarried woman, a woman who claimed ownership of herself.
So there you go. Now what was your next question?
Oh, yes. Evil. Eye. <(1)> wrote......Do you believe that there is any higher "Prophet" than God Himself?
Do you believe that Jesus Christ is the propitiation for sin of all mankind and do you understand (John 6:29, 63 and Ephesians 2:8f) as referring to the full meaning of John 3:16f ?
Lastly,
Do you believe in the supremacy of scripture?
AH well, looks like I will have to send another post.
Evil. Eye. <(1)> Wrote.....Do you believe Holy Spirit being married to humanity within Mary's womb?”
S-word NO! No and a thousand times NO.
The Amplified Version: Galatians 4: 29; “Yet at that time, the child born according to the flesh (Ishmael) despised and persecuted him (Isaac) who was born of God’s promise and the workings/power of The Holy Spirit.
Isaac, the son of Abraham and his half sister Sarah, who were both sired by the one father, 'TERAH' of different mothers, and was born according to the workings/power of the Holy Spirit, was a prototype of the man Jesus.
He, Isaac, was born of God’s promise, offered up as a sacrifice by his father on the very spot that Jesus was offered up, but he didn’t die, because a sacrificial offering that God had prepared, died in his place. An Angel, who was a man that ate of the meal offered to him by Abraham, told Sarah that she was going to become pregnant and bear the child of God’s Promise.
Likewise Jesus, the son of Mary and her half brother Joseph the son of Heli, who was also the father of Mary, was born according to the promise of the Lord, and according to the workings of the Holy Spirit, Mary was informed by a man/an angel, that she would become pregnant and bear a descendant of King David. He, Jesus, was also offered up as a sacrifice, by his father who had descended upon him in the form of a dove, and said; “You are my son, THIS DAY I have begotten thee.”
But I will explain this in greater detail, when you have received the information that will enable you to comprehend the truth as revealed in the Holy Scriptures.
Was Jesus born of a virgin birth?
Mary was a virgin right up until the act by which she conceived her firstborn son Jesus, who was sired by Joseph ben Heli. See Luke 3: 23.
Isaiah 7: 14; Correct Hebrew Translation: Therefore, the Lord, of His own, shall give you a sign; behold, the "YOUNG WOMAN" is with child, and she shall bear a son, and she shall call his name Immanuel.
The emphasis of this prophecy should be in the fact that the child would be called "IMMANUEL=GOD IS WITH US." For the man Jesus was the chosen earthly host body through whom the Lord would reveal himself to us. Jesus who was filled with the spirit of the Lord which descended upon him in the form of a dove, as the voice of the Lord was heard to say, “You are my son, ‘THIS DAY=TODAY’ I have ‘BEGOTTEN THEE=TODAY I HAVE BECOME YOUR FATHER’”.
Isaiah 7: 14; Erroneous KJV Translation: Therefore the Lord Himself will give you a sign: Behold, "THE VIRGIN" shall conceive and bear a Son, and shall call His name Immanuel.
The Greek word Parthenos used in Matthew 1:23 ; is ambiguous but the Hebrew term "Almah" that is erroneously translated in some Christian bibles as "virgin" is absolute, and according to Young's Analytical Concordance to the Bible, the Hebrew term "Almah," carries the meaning, (Concealment---unmarried female.)
Go to "A Dictionary of Biblical Tradition in English Literature," by David Jeffery.
There you will find written, "Many scholars consider the new Revised Standard Version of the King James translation, which is probably the most widely used version of the English bible today, and considered by most modern scholars to be to be the most accurate translation of the Old Testament. It follows the modern consensus in translating "Almah" as "Young Woman" in Isaiah 7: 14.
In 1973, an ecumenical edition of RSV was approved by both Protestant and Catholic hierarchies, called the common bible. As a matter of fact, I have in front of me, A New English Translation of the Bible, published in 1970 and approved by the council of churches in England, Scotland, Wales, the Irish council of churches, the London Society of Friends, and the Methodist and Presbyterian churches of England. And there in the RSV we read in Isaiah 7: 14; "A young Woman is with child, and she will bear a son." I also have before me The Good News Bible, catholic Study Edition, with imprimatur by Archbishop John Whealon: and on turning to Isaiah 7: 14; It says here, "A young woman who is pregnant will have a son, etc."
But even after admitting that the prophet Isaiah never did say that a virgin would conceive etc, but rather, "A YOUNG WOMAN" who is pregnant will have a son," in Matthew 1: 22; concerning the birth of the child Jesus, the church continues to propagate its filthy lie, by saying; "Now all this happened in order to make come true what the Lord had said through the prophet (Isaiah)" they here claim that Isaiah said; "A virgin who is pregnant, etc," which obviously he didn't and they admit that he didn't.
In translating the Hebrew words of the prophet Isaiah, that an "Almah" an "unmarried female" is with child and will bear a son," into Greek, which unlike the Hebrew language, does not have a specific term for "virgin," the authors of the Septuagint and Matthew correctly used the Greek word "Parthenos," which carries a basic meaning of "girl," or unmarried youth, and denotes "virgin" only by implication.
A more accurate rendering of the Greek "parthenos" is a person who does not have a regular sexual partner, a widow with a family of children, would be a "parthenos".
In reference to Hanna who nursed the baby Jesus before Mary performed the ceremony of purification, it is said that Anna was a prophetess who earnestly hoped for the coming of the Messiah, she was an old woman of 84 and had been a widow for seven years, never remarrying, but remaining in her parthenia=unmarried and sexually chaste state, ect, She was a parthenos, but that does not mean that she was a virgin.
To translate something from the Hebrew to the Greek, or from any language to another, one must not lose the essence of the original, and the original was, that "A young woman was with child." Therefore, as the greater majority of churches now admit, that the words of Isaiah, were "A young woman who is pregnant will have a son, etc." Matthew 1: 23; should now read, "Now all this happened to make come true what the Lord had said through Isaiah, "A young woman who is pregnant will have a son, etc." Because they all now admit that those were the words of Isaiah 7: 14.
The Septuagint was a translation of the Hebrew Old Testament into Greek, by Hebrews in Alexandria, some two hundred years before the days of Jesus and they like Matthew, were forced to use the Greek term, "Parthenos" in translating the Hebrew "Almah" Because there was no other word in that Language that they could use for maiden, or young girl, etc.
"Parthenos," was often used in reference to non-virgins who had never been married. Homer uses it in reference to unmarried girls who were no longer virgins, and Homer was the standard textbook for learning Greek all throughout antiquity, so any writer of Greek, including Matthew, who translated Isaiah's words, that (An unmarried woman would be with child etc) while being well aware of this words versatile and indefinite meaning; was in no way implying that Mary was a virgin.
For the Hebrew has a specific term for "virgin," "Bethulah" which word is used in every instance in the Old Testament where a woman who has never had sexual intercourse with a man is referred to, which is obviously not the case with the pregnant unmarried woman/Almah, who is mentioned in Isaiah 7:14.
In Pergamos, as one of the final stages in the quest for enlightenment, the initiated adept would participate in sex with the Temple Virgin/Parthenos.
"Parthenos" did not mean possessing an intact hymen. A Parthenos was simply an unmarried woman, a woman who claimed ownership of herself.
So there you go. Now what was your next question?
Oh, yes. Evil. Eye. <(1)> wrote......Do you believe that there is any higher "Prophet" than God Himself?
Do you believe that Jesus Christ is the propitiation for sin of all mankind and do you understand (John 6:29, 63 and Ephesians 2:8f) as referring to the full meaning of John 3:16f ?
Lastly,
Do you believe in the supremacy of scripture?
AH well, looks like I will have to send another post.
Eagles Wings
New member
I appreciate that you have spoken honestly about holding many accounts. Why not get rid of all but EE?
freelight
Eclectic Theosophist
At-one-ment with 'God' thru REPENTANCE.......
At-one-ment with 'God' thru REPENTANCE.......
Hi daqqy
Ah,...that last thread you mention here (by EE, I consider you both as friends ) was where I posted my 2-part commentary on 'blood-atonement' as well on the last page (love to edit a few syntax errors, but did edit the commmentaries in my blog),....I guess it is a classic thread - I'll be responding to LA's thread concerning my treatment of the subject soon.
What we have to realize, is that much in scripture is 'figurative', 'symbolic' and can be explained via analogy, allegory, archetype, correspondence,....and being so, the values and meanings of the terms or concepts are to be 'spiritually' discerned and RELATED. - concerning 'blood', carnally speaking it is the life of the flesh,...no flesh body can live without blood, and so spiritually...'blood' represents the soul-life, and is to be translated on that level. The pouring out of one's soul is a 'blood-letting' of a kind (the giving up or surrender of life of the ego-self), the sacrifice of the soul to the Spirit, since the Spirit alone is life, and illumines, inspires and gives life to the soul. T
The system of ritual animal sacrifice in the OT is mirroring the inner disposition of the soul, in its true repentance towards God, providing a 'covering' for the soul, but no amount of blood or outward rituals avail for anything apart from a true repentance of the heart and soul of the individual,....nothing else avails! One must RE-TURN to 'God'. - there are no substitutes that resolve sin finally or ultimately, except what is effected by genuine repentance. - and this has been my point, further confirmed not only by canonical scriptures themselves, but many non-canonical sources too. - that I will be sharing from many non-canonical sources goes without saying. Religious truths, philosophy and practice must stand up to the standard of the law of God within (conscience), which is also mediated thru reason and logic, since truth will never violate conscience or be irrational or illogical.
At-one-ment with 'God' thru REPENTANCE.......
Haha, that's great, I hope people do go to that third link and see how your theory was hammered into oblivion from right here in this thread.
Hi daqqy
Ah,...that last thread you mention here (by EE, I consider you both as friends
) was where I posted my 2-part commentary on 'blood-atonement' as well on the last page (love to edit a few syntax errors, but did edit the commmentaries in my blog),....I guess it is a classic thread - I'll be responding to LA's thread concerning my treatment of the subject soon. What we have to realize, is that much in scripture is 'figurative', 'symbolic' and can be explained via analogy, allegory, archetype, correspondence,....and being so, the values and meanings of the terms or concepts are to be 'spiritually' discerned and RELATED. - concerning 'blood', carnally speaking it is the life of the flesh,...no flesh body can live without blood, and so spiritually...'blood' represents the soul-life, and is to be translated on that level. The pouring out of one's soul is a 'blood-letting' of a kind (the giving up or surrender of life of the ego-self), the sacrifice of the soul to the Spirit, since the Spirit alone is life, and illumines, inspires and gives life to the soul. T
The system of ritual animal sacrifice in the OT is mirroring the inner disposition of the soul, in its true repentance towards God, providing a 'covering' for the soul, but no amount of blood or outward rituals avail for anything apart from a true repentance of the heart and soul of the individual,....nothing else avails! One must RE-TURN to 'God'. - there are no substitutes that resolve sin finally or ultimately, except what is effected by genuine repentance. - and this has been my point, further confirmed not only by canonical scriptures themselves, but many non-canonical sources too. - that I will be sharing from many non-canonical sources goes without saying. Religious truths, philosophy and practice must stand up to the standard of the law of God within (conscience), which is also mediated thru reason and logic, since truth will never violate conscience or be irrational or illogical.
Hi daqqy
Ah,...that last thread you mention here (by EE, I consider you both as friends
What we have to realize, is that much in scripture is 'figurative', 'symbolic' and can be explained via analogy, allegory, archetype, correspondence,....and being so, the values and meanings of the terms or concepts are to be 'spiritually' discerned and RELATED. - concerning 'blood', carnally speaking it is the life of the flesh,...no flesh body can live without blood, and so spiritually...'blood' represents the soul-life, and is to be translated on that level. The pouring out of one's soul is a 'blood-letting' of a kind (the giving up or surrender of life of the ego-self), the sacrifice of the soul to the Spirit, since the Spirit alone is life, and illumines, inspires and gives life to the soul. So the whole system of ritual animal sacrifice in the OT is mirroring the inner disposition of the soul, in its true repentance towards God, providing a 'covering' for the soul, but no amount of blood or outward rituals avail for anything apart from a true repentance of the heart and soul of the individual,....nothing else avails! One must RE-TURN to 'God'. - there are no substitutes that resolve sin finally or ultimately, except that is effected by genuine repentance. - and this has been my point, further confirmed not only by canonical scriptures themselves, but many non-canonical sources too. - that I will be sharing from many non-canonical sources goes without saying. Religious truths, philosophy and practice must stand up to the standard of the law of God within (conscience), which is also mediated thru reason and logic, since truth will never violate conscience or be irrational or illogical.
:thumb: Spot on my friend.
The blood has been given upon the altar for the atonement of the soul, (Lev 17:11), "For the nephesh-soul of the flesh is in the blood: and I have given it unto you upon the altar to make an atonement for your souls; for it is the blood that makes an atonement for the soul." And, "An altar of adamah shall you make unto Me", (Exodus 20:24a). And in the companion passage to Exodus 20:24a, "O that there were such an heart in them!", (Deut 5:29a), because the adamah-soil of the heart is the altar of Elohim which we make unto Him, (by the teachings of the Master in his parables and doctrine such as the Parable of the Sower wherein the heart is the soil or adamah).
If therefore the heart is an altar of pure rich and fertile adamah-soil then the upright blood of atonement is always upon that altar, day in, day out, even with every breath that you inhale and exhale in the name of Messiah. That is why in the teachings of the Master, and likewise Paul, we are admonished to put to death the soulish things of the old man, being renewed in putting on the mind of Messiah, by way of his holy Testimony. That is also how we are a priesthood; for every man is a house, and in the teachings of Messiah we, by way of him as our Kohen Gadol after the order of Melki-Tzedek, make atonement for all our house including its "lesser members", (all of whom Elohim is the Avenger, if we turn and begin to abuse those "lesser members" of our households, as even Paul has likewise forewarned in his writings, [for their angels do always behold the face of the heavenly Father]).
Continued from post #1050.
Evil. Eye. <(1)> wrote........Do you believe that there is any higher "Prophet" than God Himself?
S-word........A prophet is one who foretells the future. God, who is both the beginning and end, knows all that has happened in between, he is not prophesying what lays in the future, he is relating that which has occurred in his past.
And so, to answer your question, God is not a prophet.
Evil. Eye. <(1)> wrote........Do you believe that Jesus Christ is the propitiation for sin of all mankind
S-word I believe that Jesus died to prove the words of the Lord who said through his obedient Servant, he who believes on me, even though he dies, yet shall he live again.
And I believe that Elijah, the prophet of fire who is soon to appear, and whose chosen earthly host body will be quickened by his living presence, will prove that he who believes and lives, shall never die.
But do I believe that Jesus Christ is the propitiation for sins of all mankind? I will answer this question, when you reveal to me, what his name was before he was reborn on earth and given the name Jesus.
Remember that Jesus said to Nicodemus, “And no man has ascended to heaven EXCEPT,” there was only one exception of all mankind who was carried to the throne of the MOST HIGH in the creation, and anointed (Christ the anointed one) as the successor to the Most High, and who was translated to a glorious being of heavenly light in order that he should never see death. And it was he who filled the man Jesus with his Spirit, which are his words that give life. Even HE, The Son of Man, who “IS” in heaven, said the man Jesus.
We all must suffer the first death for the sins of the flesh in which we, the invisible minds/spirits develop, then go off into Judgement.
The Son of Man, who is to crush the head of Satan, and who, according to our concept of one directional linear time, is still currently developing within the expanded and pregnant androgynous body of EVE/mankind, is the only one who can pay the penalty for the sins of the Body in which he develops.
It was He, who had filled the man Jesus with his spirit, and it was he, who abandoned Jesus on the cross, and ceased to be an individual entity, by releasing all the spirits of the righteous who had been gathered to him, The Chosen cornerstone of the Lord, in his ascension to the ends of the heavens, which spirits came out of their graves, and three days later went into the city and showed themselves to many, as the risen Christ, the anointed one.
Evil. Eye. <(1)> wrote........Do you believe that there is any higher "Prophet" than God Himself?
S-word........A prophet is one who foretells the future. God, who is both the beginning and end, knows all that has happened in between, he is not prophesying what lays in the future, he is relating that which has occurred in his past.
And so, to answer your question, God is not a prophet.
Evil. Eye. <(1)> wrote........Do you believe that Jesus Christ is the propitiation for sin of all mankind
S-word I believe that Jesus died to prove the words of the Lord who said through his obedient Servant, he who believes on me, even though he dies, yet shall he live again.
And I believe that Elijah, the prophet of fire who is soon to appear, and whose chosen earthly host body will be quickened by his living presence, will prove that he who believes and lives, shall never die.
But do I believe that Jesus Christ is the propitiation for sins of all mankind? I will answer this question, when you reveal to me, what his name was before he was reborn on earth and given the name Jesus.
Remember that Jesus said to Nicodemus, “And no man has ascended to heaven EXCEPT,” there was only one exception of all mankind who was carried to the throne of the MOST HIGH in the creation, and anointed (Christ the anointed one) as the successor to the Most High, and who was translated to a glorious being of heavenly light in order that he should never see death. And it was he who filled the man Jesus with his Spirit, which are his words that give life. Even HE, The Son of Man, who “IS” in heaven, said the man Jesus.
We all must suffer the first death for the sins of the flesh in which we, the invisible minds/spirits develop, then go off into Judgement.
The Son of Man, who is to crush the head of Satan, and who, according to our concept of one directional linear time, is still currently developing within the expanded and pregnant androgynous body of EVE/mankind, is the only one who can pay the penalty for the sins of the Body in which he develops.
It was He, who had filled the man Jesus with his spirit, and it was he, who abandoned Jesus on the cross, and ceased to be an individual entity, by releasing all the spirits of the righteous who had been gathered to him, The Chosen cornerstone of the Lord, in his ascension to the ends of the heavens, which spirits came out of their graves, and three days later went into the city and showed themselves to many, as the risen Christ, the anointed one.
Who put those words in the prophets' mouths?
Okay... so... No! You don't believe that God atoned for all human sin. This means you are void of any concept of TRUTH. You are doing this...
Romans 10:3 - For they being ignorant of God's righteousness, and going about to establish their own righteousness, have not submitted themselves unto the righteousness of God.
And... you are emptying the cross of all it's power. (1 Co. 1:17)
You are dangerously close to Islamic theology. Instead Of Mohammed, you are proclaiming Elijah. Who, by the way was seen in Mt. 17, at the transfiguration of Jesus Christ, Lord, YHWH and Savior. So... man is now Omni present? Elijah is one of the two witnesses... but son of God he ain't!
No need... you have answered it. No! You don't believe in the atonement of sin and thus you blaspheme the Holy Spirit of Jesus! (Romans 8:8f; Philippians 1:19; Ga. 4:6)
Elijah couldn't "ascend to heaven". He was "taken" to heaven. If you were accurate... Enoch going with God as well would show your error. Enoch and Elijah were taken to heaven. So... busted again. In fact, only GOD Himself passes from earth to Heaven in Ascention form. Everyone else, including the angels, pass from the terrestrial to the celestial by the assistance of the power of God. Jesus was revealing that He alone has passed to and fro of His OWN power. Hmmmmmm?!?
Really? We must all die the first death? Interesting... You seem to forget this verse... 1 Th. 4:15f, 17 ... I wonder what other verses you exclude to support your dead bones theology?
Okay... so... again... Islamic theology to the fullest! Nowhere in scripture does it say anything you are saying...
You skipped many other specific questions that I asked. You trash scriptural Authority! So... I'm going to explain one little verse to you... (Isaiah 9:6) ... Avi-'ad... Mighty Father. And... good luck... The Great Isaiah scroll is the oldest Hebrew scroll intact and thus... You can't even surpass its authority with the Greek Septuagint. As it predates the arrival of Messiah... you would look like an idiot if you cried "TriUne theology tampering".
One more thing... Your arguments are so weak and without strength that you use Christ as anointed... In Hebrew, Christ is Meshiach... Hebrew trumps Greek every time. Messiah is savior, and again... Messiah means Savior! Is. 43:11... I'll reattach a post you missed.
I don't know where you got your false theology, but it is dead, void and without Spirit!
Spoiler to come! And [MENTION=17195]daqq[/MENTION] ... Swear Word away! Your stuff is weak. I pray this is your sock, because one more person as blind as you, pumping this ANTI-MESSIAH Swill... is absolutely disgusting!
Spoiler
Understand THIS song first, since you're in the theological fetus stage! Get this right and come back once your theological voice deepens! From here on out... I will intolerantly expose the Satanic Lies you are pumping out!
You don't believe God and You don't believe scripture, so I am now aware that you have no other purpose than to deceive and glorify the devil! I don't speak like this, but you and [MENTION=17195]daqq[/MENTION] earned it.
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Let's focus on your statement highlighted in red that is backed by scripture...
Philippians 2:5-11 ...Christ Jesus, 6 who, being in the form of God, did not consider it robbery to be equal with God,
Here, we see Jesus is indeed Equal to God. Why did God "send" Jesus? (Is. 43:11) I, even I, am the Lord, And besides Me there is no savior... This is the Mighty Father speaking through His prophet, Isaiah. (Luke 2:21) And when eight days were completed for the circumcision of the Child, His name was called Jesus, the name given by the angel before He was conceived in the womb.... conceived by Whome? (Matthew 1:18) Now the birth of Jesus Christ was as follows: ... she was found with child of the Holy Spirit... why did God "send" Jesus? (Luke 2:11) For there is born to you this day in the city of David a Savior, who is Christ the Lord. ... So... Jesus is born of the Holy Spirit, through Mary.. conceived within womb by the Holy Spirit... YHWH clearly says HE ALONE is Savior and Jesus is angelically declared the Savior, that John 3:16f affirms.
7 but made Himself of no reputation, taking the form of a bondservant, and coming in the likeness of men.
Here we can see that Jesus was not only the very LOGOS or FORM and PRESENCE of God, but He, by His own AUTHORITY, chose to liken himself unto a lowly bond servant of GOD, "His Father". Something is off here... Jesus would then be the image of God! (Colossians 1:15) He is the image of the invisible God, the firstborn over all creation. Here we have two serious theological issues... first... God said; (Is. 46:9) Remember the former things of old, For I am God, and there is no other; I am God, and there is none like Me, This would be a problem, because the only time we see God, it is considered the "GLORY" of God the Father. It would mean that Jesus is the literal, Physical Manifestation of God... and... continuitivly... we have 1 Tim. 3:16... The second hurdle is the implications of the title "FIRST BORN". WHO but GOD can take GOD's PLACE if (Isaiah 46:9) is true?
8 And being found in appearance as a man, He humbled Himself and became obedient to the point of death, even the death of the cross.
Why would He do this? (Hebrews 2:14 in light of 1 Tim. 3:16) Inasmuch then as the children have partaken of flesh and blood, He Himself likewise shared in the same, that through death He might destroy him who had the power of death, that is, the devil, What ended up empowering the devil? (1 Cor. 15:54f,56f) 56 The sting (that sounds like a serpent bite) of death is sin, and the strength of sin is the law. 57 But thanks be to God, who gives us the victory through our Lord Jesus Christ. So Jesus had authority over God's Law? Jesus is our victory, thus, He is our Savior? (Is. 43:11)
That's odd! That would make Jesus (Isaiah 9:6)!
(Php. 2:10f) that at the name of Jesus every knee should bow, of those in heaven, and of those on earth, and of those under the earth, 11 and that every tongue should confess that Jesus Christ is Lord, to the glory of God the Father.
Does that verse look familiar?
(Isaiah 45:23f) I have sworn by Myself; The word has gone out of My mouth in righteousness, And shall not return, That to Me every knee shall bow, Every tongue shall take an oath. So... God swears by Himself? This sounds a lot like (Mt. 22:44) ... But more interesting... Do you see that the Name of Jesus is now in the place of YHWH? It's like the Apostle cut out YHWH and pasted Jesus' name right in there?!?!
What's so important about all of these verses?
The Hebrew Scroll of Isaiah that was found in the Dead Sea scrolls, is the oldest of all known scrolls in Hebrew that is completely intact. It surpasses even the SEPTUAGINT in Authority, because it is in original HEBREW! Sooooo..... Where do we go from here?
Let's see that one more time!
23 I have sworn by Myself;
The word has gone out of My mouth in righteousness,
And shall not return,
That to Me every knee shall bow,
Every tongue shall take an oath.
24 He shall say,
‘Surely in the Lord I have righteousness and strength.
To Him men shall come,
10 that at the name of Jesus every knee should bow, of those in heaven, and of those on earth, and of those under the earth, 11 and that every tongue should confess that Jesus Christ is Lord, to the glory of God the Father.
So if I Bow to Jesus and confess HIM as my MASTER or LORD... (Mt. 6:24 + Isaiah 45:5) ... I'm doing so TO The GLORY of the FATHER?
Glory of the Father? Where have I seen that before?
Wait!!! That would mean that JESUS is the very GLORY and PHYSICAL manifestation of (Av-'ad or The Mighty Father!!!!) (Is. 9:6). Notice how this all dropped into place and I didn't have to change one word of scripture to do so? I wonder why that is?
You and all non-Catholics have to believe that, because otherwise you're wrong about everything.
You and all non-Catholics have to believe that, because otherwise you're wrong about everything.
Is this the thread for Christian argument between two believers in Jesus, our Lord, God and Savior? If we do not stay united in Him and hold together against the very denial of Messiah that this very thread is... what good are we?
I am forever willing to be at peace on all other matters, wherever Jesus' Deity is being contested... what does this profit?
Consider this verse (1 Co. 1:13) and this verse (Acts 19:5)
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