Is Time Absolute or Relative: Bob Enyart argues it's absolute...

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elohiym

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Clete said:
If so then why is this the first time you've brought it up?
This is not the fist time I have brought it up. Every post I have posted on this thread is about spooky action at a distance. What do you think photon entanglement proves? Nonlocality. Spooky action at a distance.

Clete said:
Most of us can't even spell your screen name, we sure as crap can't read you mind!
First, it is not my problem if you cannot spell a word. Second, no one has asked you to read my mind.

Clete said:
By itself your post about the speed of light from the perspective of the photon is completely irrelevant. If you want to relate it somehow by way of some third issue then you have to do that in advance or at least at the same time that you bring up the other. The connection is somewhat less the intuitive, and even now, I do not see the connection. How are either of these issue related at all to the hypothetical that Bob presented in his opening post?
Bob is arguing time is absolute. Is time absolute or relative for a photon?
 

ThePhy

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elohiym said:
From the title of this thread: Is Time Absolute or Relative: Bob Enyart argues it's absolute

Is time relative or absolute for a photon?
I concede the title of the thread can be stretched to include the scenario you bring up. But the poiint still stands that the issue that Bob Enyart had in mind when he initiated this thread (and which he has made even more explicit) is one relative to Time Dilation in relativity. Your issue derives from QM, and beyond the forced fit into the title, is a side issue.
 

taoist

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Clete said:
... Relativity is riddled with this sort of self-contradictory nonsense ...
Just a fast word on this one. The contradiction vanishes as soon as one accepts that time relative to a photon is not the same time relative to anything else. This is, after all, why it's called "relativity."

Clete said:
Mathematically speaking you can convert mass into energy and vise versa.

One photon of light has a specific amount of energy. If you convert this energy to mass and then run the exact same sort of math in regards to the Relativistic effects on mass that elohiym has shown us in regards to time, whammo bammo, you have an infinite amount of mass.

Then you just do the reverse conversion from mass to energy and you've successfully converted the finite energy of a single photon of light into an infinite amount of energy.
Forgive my editing, Clete. I tried hard not to distort your meaning.

Yes, you can convert mass to energy, though not easily. Once you've achieved this mass, doing the "exact same sort of math" means accelerating the mass to light speed. But to accelerate the former photon that's now a chunk of mass to lightspeed, it's necessary to add an infinite amount of energy, as can be shown using that "exact same sort of math."

So, in essence, you've converted a photon into an infinite amount of energy -- by adding an infinite amount of energy to a photon.
 

koban

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taoist said:
So, in essence, you've converted a photon into an infinite amount of energy -- by adding an infinite amount of energy to a photon.



But Taoist, aren't degrees of "infinity" relative? Is there an "absolute" infinity? :chuckle:
 

taoist

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koban said:
But Taoist, aren't degrees of "infinity" relative? Is there an "absolute" infinity? :chuckle:
Be careful what you ask for. You're speaking of cardinals. Here are the basic rules of cardinal arithmetic:

For cardinals d and e; with d > 1, d <= e, and e infinite:
  1. d + e = e
  2. d * e = e
  3. d < 2 ^ d
  4. d ^ e = 2 ^ e ..... (for d <= 2 ^ e)
  5. e ^ d = e ........... (for e > 2 ^ d)
Note that (3) allows construction of an infinite chain of infinite cardinals:
  • (2 ^ d) < (2 ^ (2 ^ d)) < (2 ^ (2 ^ (2 ^ d))) ... (for d infinite)
So no, koban, there is no greatest infinite cardinal.
 

koban

New member
taoist said:
Be careful what you ask for. You're speaking of cardinals. Here are the basic rules of cardinal arithmetic:

For cardinals d and e; with d > 1, d <= e, and e infinite:
  1. d + e = e
  2. d * e = e
  3. d < 2 ^ d
  4. d ^ e = 2 ^ e ..... (for d <= 2 ^ e)
  5. e ^ d = e ........... (for e > 2 ^ d)
Note that (3) allows construction of an infinite chain of infinite cardinals:
  • (2 ^ d) < (2 ^ (2 ^ d)) < (2 ^ (2 ^ (2 ^ d))) ... (for d infinite)
So no, koban, there is no greatest infinite cardinal.



I dabbled in some of that when I was younger - linear and matrix algebra at the masters level, standard science level Calc up to Diff EQ - did quite well at the time, but twenty years later - well, use it or lose it, and I never used it. :chuckle:
 

Clete

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taoist said:
Just a fast word on this one. The contradiction vanishes as soon as one accepts that time relative to a photon is not the same time relative to anything else. This is, after all, why it's called "relativity."

Forgive my editing, Clete. I tried hard not to distort your meaning.

Yes, you can convert mass to energy, though not easily. Once you've achieved this mass, doing the "exact same sort of math" means accelerating the mass to light speed. But to accelerate the former photon that's now a chunk of mass to lightspeed, it's necessary to add an infinite amount of energy, as can be shown using that "exact same sort of math."

So, in essence, you've converted a photon into an infinite amount of energy -- by adding an infinite amount of energy to a photon.
It isn't the energy that you've added to the system that increases the mass; it's the increase in speed (according to Relativity that is). Further, the photon is already going the speed of light in the first place; I don't have to accelerate it to that speed again.

Resting in Him,
Clete

P.S. I don't mind the editing. I get in a hurry sometimes and leave things less than perfectly edited. So as long as the edit is honest, it never bothers me for people to do such things. :thumb:
 

Johnny

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Relativity states that the closer you get to the speed of light the more massive you become, the less volume you have and the slower you go through time. Thus you could also, with the same sort of math convert the energy in a photon to mass and then work your mathematical magic to discover that each photon is actually of infinite mass (which would translate back again into infinite energy).
Not quite. You can't convert the energy of a photon into mass and then pretend to use that mass travelling at the speed of light to reach infinite energy and make up magical contradictions. E=mc^2 is not valid for photons because it's actually for rest energy. Photons are never at rest.

For objects in motion, E^2 = (mc^2)^2 + (pc)^2. Therefore if you want to know a photon's energy, you need to know it's momentum (which is different than Newtonian momentum, see below).
The relativistic energy-momentum equation is E^2 - (pc)^2 = (mc^2)^2 where p is momentum, m is mas, and c is the speed of light. For a photon with mass 0...

E^2 - (pc)^2 = 0
E^2 = (pc)^2
E = pc
p = E/c

Therefore a photon's momentum is a function of it's energy, not of it's mass as in Newtonian mechanics.

Going back to E = (mc^2)^2 + (pc)^2, notice that a photon can never have a mass equivalence while it's travelling at the speed of light. Because if you substitute the photon's energy for E and the photon's momentum for p, you'll get mass=0, always. However, photons can be absorbed and perhaps translated into mass, but they still yield finite energy and thus finite mass.

Does you math prove that you are right, no it doesn't. In fact, your math (or another aspect of it) would seem to suggest an impossibility, that a photon is both of finite measurable energy and of infinite energy as well all because of the speed at which is it travelling. Relativity is riddled with this sort of self-contradictory nonsense.
Again, you haven't raised a valid objection. There is no contradiction. The math does not suggest an impossibility.

Be that as it may, however, isn't it someone intuitive given just the very basic tenets of Relativity?
No. You'd need a better understanding before anything becomes intuitive.

Any objection to this post (185)?

What's happening when a particle with a known decay time takes a lot longer to decay at near the speed of light?
 
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taoist

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Clete,
It isn't the energy that you've added to the system that increases the mass; it's the increase in speed (according to Relativity that is).

taoist,
Adding speed is adding energy. Sorry, I shouldn't have skipped that step. More, probably too much more, on that in a bit.

***

Clete,
Further, the photon is already going the speed of light in the first place; I don't have to accelerate it to that speed again.

taoist,
And so long as it stays at the speed of light, you'll never turn it into mass. The transformation is typically done by absorbing the photon into an already existing nuclear particle as part of a complex nuclear transformation. After that, the only speed it has is the speed of the particle it got absorbed by. Okay, here goes nothing. A particle with mass has what's called rest energy with the usual Einstein formula.

E (massy particle) = m * c^2​

But photon energy is given by Planck's law via the constant "h" named after him.

E (massless particle) = h * nu​

After all, a photon doesn't have mass, just energy. Nu is the greek letter physics types use for frequency, as I'm sure you remember. So in transforming a photon into a massy particle the photon stops being a photon, stops traveling at the speed of light, and stops being a massless particle. All three at once. I'm gonna pretend we can slice off just the bit of mass that came from the photon. Call the transformed photon a photonoid just for convenience, though there's no such thing really.

The photon's Planck's law energy got turned into rest energy so the photonoid ends up with mass. We can calculate that mass from the two formulas above just by invoking conservation of "total" energy, meaning the sum of rest energy and kinetic energy in this case. The total energy of the photonoid has to be the same as the total energy of the photon it came from.

m (photonoid) * c^2= h * nu (photon)​

So we end up with the mass of the photonoid = h * nu / c^2. But like the "rest energy" formula suggests, this new particle is at rest. If you speed up the particle, everything works out close enough in the Newtonian model while you're still a lot slower than the speed of light.

But as the speed gets higher, the relativistic effects start heading off the scale. The "correction factor" for relativistic mass is a fraction whose denominator includes the difference between the speed of the photonoid and the speed of light. As the photonoid's speed accelerates close to the speed of light, the correction factor blows up and so does the mass of the photonoid.

The acceleration doesn't come for free. To speed up the photonoid, you've got to add energy. But then the mass blows up, and so does the energy needed to speed it up further. So you've got to add infinite energy to get the photonoid all the way back up to the speed of light.

***

Resting in Him,
Clete

P.S. I don't mind the editing. I get in a hurry sometimes and leave things less than perfectly edited. So as long as the edit is honest, it never bothers me for people to do such things. :thumb:

In peace,
taoist

ps. You never can tell whether that little bit you took out was an unimportant aside, or if you actually missed something vital. I'm almost always honest, but sometimes I'm honestly wrong. :chuckle:
 

Clete

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Taoist,

I have a question concerning what you said here...
taoist said:
The transformation is typically done by absorbing the photon into an already existing nuclear particle as part of a complex nuclear transformation. After that, the only speed it has is the speed of the particle it got absorbed by.

Is the mass of the particle actually increased or only the energy is has (in spin or whatever)?

And also, when these conversions are done from photon to particle (assuming for the sake of conversation that they are in fact done) how much energy is left over? Or asked another way, is all the energy conserved in the transformation; can it all be accounted for?

Resting in Him,
Clete
 

taoist

New member
Clete said:
Taoist,

I have a question concerning what you said here...


When these conversions are done from photon to particle (assuming for the sake of conversation that they are in fact done) how much energy is left over? Or asked another way, is all the energy conserved in the transformation; can it all be accounted for?

Resting in Him,
Clete
Johnny!!!!

HELP!!!

I'm imagining a reverse neutron decay, Johnny, thinking how the decay spits out a photon, along with an electron, a proton and assorted neutrinos, but I'm not even sure that ever happens. I tried thinking of it as a change in electron orbits, but then I couldn't see how mass would be added.

If I'm all wet, lemme know, okay. If there's a better example, I'd like to know it.






But to answer your question, Clete, yes, total energy is conserved in the theory of relativity.
 

Johnny

New member
When most atoms absorb photons the energy is conserved as energy by bumping electrons up to higher energy levels.

A good example of photon to mass conversion is electron-positron pair formation from gamma rays photons. In any closed system energy is conserved. Usually the positron will collide with another electron pretty quickly, which will release exactly half of the original gamma ray photon's energy (afterall, the positron is one half of the mass created).
 

Clete

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Johnny said:
He won't report one fewer sunsets. They saw the same number. They'll simply disagree on how long each day was (because they are experiencing time differently from each other). Again, this does not mean that the sun should fall out of sync for us. One of us will have experienced less time in the same period.
This is contradictory Johnny! You can't have it both ways. If the days were different lengths and both guys started and ended there experiment together then one of them experienced more days than the other. That's just simple math.

Here's a more visual example. Imagine two frames of a movie (showing clocks) running side by side. (Note that I use the term "frame" not to refer to an actual snapshot of the film, but more like two panels of the same film running side by side). One is frame is slowed to half normal speed. So, while one clock ticks off 10 seconds, the other clock in the other frame ticks off five seconds (because the film is actually running slower). Now, imagine a person in each frame who can see out of the frame. Imagine a sun rising over both frames of the film. They both watch the sun, outside of both frames, rise until midsky. Notice that both frames will always agree on the position of the sun, but they won't agree on how long it took there. One frame will say "it took 10 hours", but the other frame will say "it took 5 hours". But the sun is in the same position for both frames always. So if the frames could talk to each other, they would always agree on where the sun was, but they wouldn't agree on how much time has passed (and one person would be talking much slower!).
This example doesn't work because according to Einstein, it isn't just the clock that is running slow, it is time itself that has slowed, which in turn causes the clock to run slow. According to Einstien, the guy with the slow clock should be able to tell that anything is happening. He should look at the sun and report that it take the normal 24 hours to complete its circuit and the guy with the faster clock should report the exact same thing. The fact that they don't is precisely the problem that Bob and I are trying to get you guys to acknowledge.

Which brings up a good way to measure this relativistic effect. If we could somehow put people in the situation we could measure how much slower and deeper their voice is to calculate how much time is dilated for that observer. But we can't, so we use light. Imagine you have a lightsource that emits at a known frequency (interval between waves). For example, say you have a lightbulb that emits at 200 Hz, that is 1/200 of a second between each crest of the EM wave. Now whirl that lightbulb around at near the speed of light and measure the frequency of the light from your stationary position. It won't be 200 Hz, because 1/200 of a second at near the speed of light is longer than 1/200 of a second in a relatively stationary frame. So you should measure a different frequency, after you've accounted for the doppler effect (physicists actually use transverse motion so you don't really need to cancel out the doppler effect). If relativity is correct, then the standard interval should lengthen according to an outside frame stationary relative to the particle. And indeed, the frequency does change (of course, they didn't use a lightbulb).
I do not dispute that such an observation would be made, only the explanation that is given for why it is observed. But that's a topic for another thread.

Also notice that using the sun as a timepiece becomes utterly meaningless for communicating time intervals to each other. Because for one frame the sun took 5 hours to reach midsky, while the other frame it took 10 hours. So if we calibrated clocks to the sun, we'd be expressing different intervals depending on our frame. In other words, I couldn't share a recipe with you because my interval is completely different than yours. It's still better to use clocks inside our frames (i.e. our watches) even though they are out of sync. Because if a cake takes five minutes to bake in my frame, it will take five minutes to bake in your frame.
This is a good way to illustrate (though it is not without it's shortcomings) the principle here. Except instead of film frames, physicists use the term inertial frame.
I don't think you realize it but you've just restated Bob's problem using an entirely different illustration. If the cooking utensils and the oven are all traveling along with the baker (or are in the same gravity well), then the recipe should work exactly the same as it does when all of it is at rest (including the sunrise and sunset). Again, it isn't just the clocks that Einstein says Relativity affects but time itself. Bob and I are the one's suggesting that it's just the clocks. Doesn't it set off any bells or whistles in your mind that you've begun, without realizing it, to argue in favor of our position? I think it should. It would (and did) in my head, I know that for certain.

I have always said that they would see the same sunrise and sunset.
Okay.

They are not a "day" behind. One has experienced 24 hours less than the other.
But with the same number of sunsets! That's the whole problem in a nutshell.

I know that there is no object in the universe we call time, just as there is no object in the universe that we call length. It is a definition. Time is not an object. It is a measurement we have assigned, just like length or height or width. So when we say "Time is relative", we are saying that so-called standard intervals are actually frame-dependent.
In my head what this translates to is this...
"Time itself does not exist and is therefore not effected by Relativity. What's effected by Relativity is clocks, not time."​

That's what I've been saying all along! How am I wrong?

Truly. But there isn't really a standard interval. For example, say you define a standard interval as the duration it takes for a particle to decay. You realize that baking a cake takes about 10000 decays. Then you mail me your particles on the top of the mountain. You watch through your telescope and you realize that they're actually decaying a bit faster for me. If you tried to bake a cake by counting 10000 decays of my particles decaying at the top of a mountain, you'd undercook your cake. However, from my experience at the top of the mountain, they bake a perfect cake. This is another way of saying the same thing I said earlier: using a clock outside of your inertial frame is absurd under extreme relativistic conditions. So it's not accurate to say that using the sun as a clock is better than using an atomic clock.
I think you are still not getting the point with respect to the clock being a more reliable clock that atomic clocks. Let me see if I can clarify it.

By your own admission, regardless of what our two clocks read, both clock watchers have seen the same number of sunrises and sunsets. So we have three clocks only one of which reads the same for both people in the experiment and that one happens to be the sun.

In addition to that, one or the other clock presumably has continued to be in sync with the sun through out that experiment and it is the clock in the deeper gravity well that has been effected due to the effects of Relativity but we can know that it is merely the clock itself that was effected by gravity and not time itself because the person assigned to watch the slower clock has himself stayed in sync with the other clock. How do we know that? Because he reports the same number of sunrises and sunsets as the other guy who's clock is still in sync with that number of days. Thus the sun is used to confirm or falsify the readings of the atomic clock. An inferior standard cannot be used to confirm and superior one and thus the sun is the superior time piece.

They're measuring an interval. We live and die by intervals. What meaning has time if you dissociate it from that which we have defined it as? It has no empirical meaning outside of measurement, as I have said before.
Right, when I said that clocks aren't measuring anything, I was speaking existentially. Time "itself" doesn't exist and so cannot be measured. I think the most accurate way to put it is to say that clocks measure duration and sequence.

So when we say "time dilates" we mean that standard intervals become shorter or longer from an outside perspective (outside of the object's inertial frame).
Again, this translates in my head as...
"'Time dilation' affects clocks, not time 'itself'". The very thing Bob and I have been saying all along.

Resting in Him,
Clete

p.s. Sorry I didn't respond to this earlier. I didn't have much time this afternoon to be on the computer and had missed it!
 

Clete

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taoist said:
Johnny!!!!

HELP!!!

I'm imagining a reverse neutron decay, Johnny, thinking how the decay spits out a photon, along with an electron, a proton and assorted neutrinos, but I'm not even sure that ever happens. I tried thinking of it as a change in electron orbits, but then I couldn't see how mass would be added.

If I'm all wet, lemme know, okay. If there's a better example, I'd like to know it.

:D

That made me chuckle! :chuckle:

But to answer your question, Clete, yes, total energy is conserved in the theory of relativity.
Okay, so now for a follow up question.

Assuming that you guys are right about it taking an infinite amount of energy to get from a particle of any size to the speed of light, how is it that you can do the reverse without an infinite amount of excess energy?

I'm not necessarily presenting this as a real problem or contradiction; I'm just displaying my ignorance here for the fun of it.

Resting in Him,
Clete
 

Johnny

New member
p.s. Sorry I didn't respond to this earlier. I didn't have much time this afternoon to be on the computer and had missed it!
No prob, I understand completely.

I just realized that Taoist might have referenced me being a physicist. I'm not really a physicist (don't have my PhD in it). I don't even work in physics. I'm actually a medical student, little to do with physics :) I have my BS in physics and my minor in biophysics. Physics has always been a huge interest of mine, but I didn't want to pursue it as a career.
If the days were different lengths and both guys started and ended there expereiment together then one of them experienced more days than the other.
Again, you're assuming time isn't relative. That is, 4 hours for me is 4 hours for you. That's the only ways days fall out of sync. If time is relative (i.e. I can experience four hours while you experience six over the same interval), then we can still disagree on the time that has passed and still agree on the number of sunsets.
This example doesn't work because according to Einstien, it isn't just the clock that is running slow, it is time itself which in turn causes the clock to run slow.
Exactly. Which is why I noted that his voice would be deeper and slower.

According to Einstien, the guy with the slow clock should be able to tell that anything is happening.
I assume you meant "shouldn't" be able to tell. And that's correct, he can't feel anything different. He only notices the difference when he looks at an outside frame of reference--the sun, or the man at the bottom of the mountain. So he won't report the sun as 24 hours. He'll report the sun as less than 24 hours. That must be where the misunderstanding lies. He won't report the sun as taking 24 hours. Think of the man in the slow movie. He perceives his watches as normal. This means that he must see the outside frames as moving much faster.

But with the same number of sunsets. That's the whole problem in a nutshell.
That's relativity in a nutshell. Say you pick an interval occuring outside of both reference frames (outside of the man at the top of the mountain and the man at the base of the mountain). The sun is outside both inertial frames (it is unaffected by the local gravity). The whole concept of relativity is that one person can measure the sun's interval as 24 hours and another can measure it as 12 hours. The guy who measured it as 12 hours has a slower ticking clock, even though he doens't really notice it. The only way he can tell that something is different is that the sun is only taking 12 hours to cross his sky.

[----------------------------] < interval sun takes to cross the sky (note that it's not an absolute interval, only an interval)

[ - - - - - - - - - - - - - ] < Man on mountain measures it as 12 hours.
[----------------------------] < Man at base measures it as 24 hours.

They measured the same interval and came up with different times. This is because one man is experiencing time slower. Think of the guy who measured it as 12 hours experiencing time in slow motion. If you looked at his watch from outside his inertial frame, it would be ticking slow. His hair would be growing slower, his cells would be dying slower, and he would be aging slower. His meals would cook slower, his maximum running velocity would be slower, and his calculator would calculate slower. But, he experiences the flow of time as completely normal. His clock is ticking fine. This demands that outside clocks tick faster and the sun would be streaking across the sky faster than usual.

"Time itself does not exist and is therefore not effected by Relativity. What's effected by Relativity is clocks, not time."
Time is the measurement of intervals. Intervals are relative. Thus time is relative.

I'm not exactly sure where you're going with "clocks are affected by relativity and not time". As I've stated, there is no emperical difference as time is simply a measurement that clocks make. How does claiming that only clocks are affected by relativity make any sense when time has no meaning outside of an interval? What does making that statement say about the nature of absolute time, as Bob is talking about?

Time doesn't exist and so cannot itself be measured.
So would you say the same thing about length, width, and height? What about velocity or momentum? Do those not exist as well? They only exist in measurement.

So we have three clocks only one of which reads the same for both people in the experiment and that one happens to be the sun.
Yes. The sun reads the same for both people but it doesn't describe the same interval for both people. This is what renders the sun useless as a time piece. How can the sun be used as a time piece when neither person will agree on how fast it is moving? It's like everyone using a watch in which 'seconds' aren't standardized. Sure, we're all using 'seconds'. But it doesn't make any sense for me to say "it'll take about 5 seconds" because your watch may actually measure seconds twice as fast as mine does. That doesn't make any sense does it? I can't tell you how long to cook anything or when to meet me because you don't measure seconds the same way I do. In the same sense, I don't measure the sun the way you do.

Here it is again in a nutshell:

sun:----------[rise------------------set]
my clock:--[tick------tock-----tick] < I count 3 seconds
your clock-[ticktockticktocktick] < you count 5 seconds

Both of us feel our experience is completely normal. If you look at my clock you say "dang it's ticking slow. The sun really took 5 seconds". If I look over at yours I say "dang it's ticking fast. The sun really took 3 seconds". So how can we both use the sun as a time piece when neither of us agree on what interval it took to cross the sky? In order for time to have meaning for us we must have a standardized interval. Do you understand what I'm saying?
 

Clete

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I'm running short on time so I will ask only one question in response for now...

Johnny said:
[----------------------------] < interval sun takes to cross the sky (note that it's not an absolute interval, only an interval)

[ - - - - - - - - - - - - - -] < Man on mountain measures it as 12 hours.
[----------------------------] < Man at base measures it as 24 hours.

They measured the same interval and came up with different times.

If time is, as you've said, "...the measurement of intervals.", how is the above quotation not a contradiction?

I would also ask a separate question based on this same quote.

It almost seems that you and Bob are in virtual agreement in that the "interval" you've represented with the bracketed, equal length lines representing Bob's "absolute time". A person's perception of that interval may change in some predictable way but the actual interval itself remains constant. Would you agree with this, at all?

Resting in Him,
Clete
 

PureX

Well-known member
Clete said:
If time is, as you've said, "...the measurement of intervals.", how is the above quotation not a contradiction?
If I wind up two cheap clocks and set them side-by-side on the table for a day, and at the end of the day they disagree on how much time they say has passed, do you see this as a contradiction? Or do you see this as two clocks running at two different speeds and therefor showing two different times? I realize that the times on their faces "contradict" each other, but does the fact that two cheap clocks would run at different speed really represent an actual contradiction? I don't think it does.

In my little scenario, it's the variation in the structures of the clocks that cause the variation in the times on their faces. But in the scenario under discussion on this thread, it's the variations in the physical conditions effecting the clocks that cause the variation in their read-outs. But in neither case do I see an actual contradiction. There is only the apparent contradiction of their read-outs.
 

Clete

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PureX said:
If I wind up two cheap clocks and set them side-by-side on the table for a day, and at the end of the day they disagree on how much time they say has passed, do you see this as a contradiction? Or do you see this as two clocks running at two different speeds and therefor showing two different times? I realize that the times on their faces "contradict" each other, but does the fact that two cheap clocks would run at different speed really represent an actual contradiction? I don't think it does.
It doesn't! But only because that problem rests solely with the clocks, NOT WITH TIME!

In my little scenario, it's the variation in the structures of the clocks that cause the variation in the times on their faces. But in the scenario under discussion on this thread, it's the variations in the physical conditions effecting the clocks that cause the variation in their read-outs. But in neither case do I see an actual contradiction. There is only the apparent contradiction of their read-outs.
NO! The whole point of Bob's scenerio is that the clocks read differently because (according to Einstein) time had slowed down for one of them. It is Bob who is suggesting the problem is with the clocks, not you Relativity guys!

Resting in Him,
Clete
 
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