ECT Grace is unconditional but not universal

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Nang

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What I posited doesn't mention of Seth. WAKE UP because this where I lose my cool with you. You can read same as me. READ IT WITH BUT HONESTy OF PURPOSE, I.E., FOR THE TRUTH.

"And as for Seth, to him also a son was born, and he named him Enosh. Then men began to call on the name of the Lord." Genesis 4:26

Then immediately following, the Holy Spirit provides a complete genealogy of Adam through Seth which lineage produced Godly men of faith to the family of Noah. Genesis Chapter 5 All this lineage found grace from God, contrasted with all wicked humanity. Genesis 6:5-9

They could be anything else but since regeneration was NOT possible. Four Thousand years later it would be.

Regeneration was just as necessary to save sinners then, as it is today. These O.T. saints found grace from God who gifted them with faith to believe the covenant promise of a "Seed" who would remedy the effects of sin, death, and the devil. Genesis 3:15
 

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"And as for Seth, to him also a son was born, and he named him Enosh. Then men began to call on the name of the Lord." Genesis 4:26

Then immediately following, the Holy Spirit provides a complete genealogy of Adam through Seth which lineage produced Godly men of faith to the family of Noah. Genesis Chapter 5 All this lineage found grace from God, contrasted with all wicked humanity. Genesis 6:5-9

So what??!! Where is the relevancy??


Regeneration was just as necessary to save sinners then, as it is today. These O.T. saints found grace from God who gifted them with faith to believe the covenant promise of a "Seed" who would remedy the effects of sin, death, and the devil. Genesis 3:15

The shed blood Jesus Christ was needed for regeneration, both for the dead in Him and living, like us. Do you really want to argue against that? Think redemption and what it accomplished. It paved the way to salvation and regeneration.
 

Nang

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So what??!! Where is the relevancy??

The relevancy is in the covenant promise (God's Word). Jesus shed His blood to ratify this covenant.






The shed blood Jesus Christ was needed for regeneration, both for the dead in Him and living, like us. Do you really want to argue against that? Think redemption and what it accomplished.

I am not arguing with you or against Christ justifying His people with His blood. I am simply giving you the Covenant view of unconditional Grace.

The O.T. saints were saved according to faith in God's promise, and N.T. saints are saved by faith in God's promise fulfilled. Same regeneration (change of heart), same grace, same faith, same repentance from sin, same obedience, same body and church of believers, chosen in Jesus Christ to inherit His Kingdom.
 

Nang

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To Sonnet and PPS,

I believe there is an important factor that has not been brought forth in all this discussion of Godly Grace, and that is the legal factor.

Adam was created good and in the image of God. He was also made subject to Godly commands (Law) and in order to live, Adam was responsible to obey God's commands. So when Adam broke covenant with God, he suffered legal ramifications. A death sentence.

Thus, Godly grace works as a legal pardon from this sentence of death.

Which takes us into the doctrine of Justification, for death was necessary to satisfy the wages of sin and guilt. Christ died a substitutionary death, in order to serve the justice of God . . fully, thoroughly, and perfectly . . as only the God/Man could do.

So as we discuss Grace and pardon of sins, we must discuss Justification by faith alone, which is the foundation of the Protestant view.
 

Nang

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There was covenant promise of the Savior in Genesis 3:15, and ratification of that covenant with the shedding of innocent animal blood in Genesis 3:21.

No!!!! re Gen 3:15,21: No covenant promise, ever! God simply declared what He was going to do which had NOTHING to do with covenent relationships. Promise is NOT covenant! Promises are based upon the performance of one's life..or from the Bible, the performance of a nation.

You quote Gen 3;25 as being about the Jesus Christ when, by simple deducion could be the church or the woman, who is believed to be the chhurch given us in Rev 12:6. .. or both and still be correct as stemming from Eve.

So when beginning a study first let the passage say what it says and leave it alone,, without reading alot doctrine into it.. doctrine without man's agenda will arise out of the honest attempt at searching with all your heart, the Mind of God.
 

Nang

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No!!!! re Gen 3:15,21: No covenant promise, ever! God simply declared what He was going to do which had NOTHING to do with covenent relationships. Promise is NOT covenant! Nor does the blood of animals deal with sin or suggest covenant..

Let it say what it says and leave it alone.

Sorry, but you will hear a lot from me about covenants, if you participate in my threads, for I am a student of Covenant Theology, and I believe it is the Truth.
 

PneumaPsucheSoma

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What generates the interest in the Lapsarian views, is of course Ephesians 1:4, where it is revealed souls were chosen to receive adoption in Christ before the creation . . which God purposed "in Himself" Ephesians 1:9 and worked out to the glorious event of the Incarnation in the "dispensation of the fullness of times" in Ephesians 1:10

I agree that God is not subject to time or contingent upon anything created, so I ask if you interpret "the foundation of the world" as being something other than creation "in the beginning." Genesis 1:1

This would take some delineation (which would make a great topic during breaks on a nice weekend motorcycle trip if that could ever happen).

The ancient Hebrew mindset was not abstract at all, nor was their language. Creation was more understood as "giving functionality" rather than instantiation. Greek carries much the same connotation, but in a different manner.

"Before" in that (and other passages) is pro (a preposition governing the genitive; and the genitive generally indicates possession - and remember, English doesn't have cases for nouns); used of both place and time. Pertaining to (a) person, particularly "before" the face of someone.

So pro can only be relative to created "whereness" and "whenness" of place and time. So it's a relative reference to creation, and there is apporpriately a "where" and "when" to index relative to timelessness BUT that doesn't govern timelessness.

Creation is more a demarcation separating the eternal (God alone) from all else, including the aeviternal (everlasting, which had a beginning as created).

"Foundation" is katabole (from kataballo), to throw down; a casting or laying down; founding, foundation. It serves as much to intimate a Creator as it does to stand for instantiation as creation.

Metaphorically, of seed. Literally strength for the casting in or implanting of seed.

Creation was for God sowing the seed of His Logos to bring forth mankind as the yield at harvest. (Look at katabole in Hebrews 11:11. It's translated "conceive", and its an anarthrous NOUN!!!!

But "before" this foundation, there was no "before" for God. And "after" this foundation, there is no "after" for God. This invokes a glimpse of how it is about place as well as time, even though God created all place/s as "where/s", also.

It's a reference to His "beyondness" of transcendance by contrast. And as the Hebrews perceived it, creation was the functionalization of all things.

All aspects of creation in the eternal immutable mind of God were not functionalized apart from the Divine Utterance to create. It was eternal noumena, with no phenomena apart from the Rhema of God's dunamis which carried it forth and is upholding it for all everlasting. Yet there was not "when" for this to happen.

Zodhiates says of John 1:1... "Before there was any beginning, the Word had been, and the Word has been toward the God, and God had been the Word."

These are all time-relative terms for those in a creation governed by time (though the form of created time prior to the Edenic scenario likely wasn't this chronological form we "now" know as time).

God is not limited by His creation of time, even with His immanence within creation. He is still transcendant to creation while being immanent within creation. So "before" and "after" for God are irrelevant and inapplicable. He condescends to speak to us in terms we can comprehend; but also empowers and enables us to understand Him by/through His Logos, which is uncreated and timeless.

God "finalizes" creation's scroll from and with creation, even though it is eternally "finalized". This is what the deluded heretical God-denying Open Theists have corrupted to try to make God subject TO creation and man (originally) created in His image.
 

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Sorry, but you will hear a lot from me about covenants, if you participate in my threads, for I am a student of Covenant Theology, and I believe it is the Truth.

Sounds like we have a problem . . . you will have to deal with it except, as I am able, to give you my findings for you to ponder.. Try to break yourself free of "wayfaring untoward doctrines" that can put to death the simplicity of the gospel as God purposed to be understood. Lift up Jesus and live..

Later, CR
 
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PneumaPsucheSoma

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To Sonnet and PPS,

I believe there is an important factor that has not been brought forth in all this discussion of Godly Grace, and that is the legal factor.

Adam was created good and in the image of God. He was also made subject to Godly commands (Law) and in order to live, Adam was responsible to obey God's commands. So when Adam broke covenant with God, he suffered legal ramifications. A death sentence.

Thus, Godly grace works as a legal pardon from this sentence of death.

Which takes us into the doctrine of Justification, for death was necessary to satisfy the wages of sin and guilt. Christ died a substitutionary death, in order to serve the justice of God . . fully, thoroughly, and perfectly . . as only the God/Man could do.

So as we discuss Grace and pardon of sins, we must discuss Justification by faith alone, which is the foundation of the Protestant view.

Yep. No illegal immigrants in heaven. Legal immigration is facilitated by God. Immigrants don't determine themselves to be citizens. They don't even help the legislature and judiciary to determine themselves citizens.

PelArminagians don't recognize that the Synergism they presume they exhibit and engage in is merely the original created functionality latent within them that they presuppose is inherent good while ignoring the pathos of THE sin (condition) from spiritual death.

Any sense of Synergism is from the original Monergistic creation. PelArminagians presume their current created existence is somehow self-existing or self-perpetuating. Odd when the very breath of physical life is from God's Spirit (Pnuema).

I guess God is obligated to man in their minds. But all God would have to do would be to inhale just a bit, and all animate life would not be.

Such presumption and entitlement.
 

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What generates the interest in the Lapsarian views, is of course Ephesians 1:4, where it is revealed souls were chosen to receive adoption in Christ before the creation . . which God purposed "in Himself" Ephesians 1:9 and worked out to the glorious event of the Incarnation in the "dispensation of the fullness of times" in Ephesians 1:10

If God choose Paul and called him, in the sense you declare it had to be to make it fit your doctrine, then what took Paul so-o-o-o long to respond? Did he not hear God the many times He called him?? Paul was no reprobate. So, what was the hold up that required something of Paul to respond to God's call except, by blinding him, God made him willing to be willing to obey him. Get my drift? Did Paul curse God for his blindness? No! He recognized RIGHTEOUSNESS when he saw it and was instantly converted. So, regardless of the degree of resistance man puts up to God who calls him, if that man doesn't like the idea of giving up his idea of a 'good' life, but God sees in him untapped righteousness He can use for His intentions, God will go to no end to 'persuade'. Thankfully Paul got the message before God got serious. And you want to call that a "gift of faith"???
 

TulipBee

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Does he interfere with your life to perform that or simply show you the way from scripture and you are to do it? Sortta like salvation?



What perservance of the saints? You mean this:

You are sealed. . . "If ye continue in the faith grounded and settled, and be not moved away from the hope of the gospel,. . . . " Colossians 1:23 (KJV)



You mean as this:

You can't lose your salvation . . . "If ye continue in the faith grounded and settled, and be not moved away from the hope of the gospel,. . . . " Colossians 1:23 (KJV)

I have a whole bunch more "IF's" you need to know about before you draw more false conclusions to an end. And if you have already well, you lose. Know that you cannot support your man-made doctrine with scripture. It isn't there and one is only allowing himself to be deluded. Personally, I don't understand why anyone would to move in that direction when knowing the Holy Spirit will not compromise Himself to live within such soulish life incapable of regeneration. However, perhaps that all wasn't explained to you? Here:

"Because thou sayest, I am rich, and increased with goods, and have need of nothing; and knowest not that thou art wretched, and miserable, and poor, and blind, and naked . .. . . I will spue thee out of my mouth."

Revelation 3:17,16 (KJV)
Lets see if PPS can explain why you guys are so screwed up on the "if". "If" to me is a condition but it sounds like a verb to you like man is able to perform the conditions. Since man can't perform certian verbs on thier own then it must be a condition.
 

TulipBee

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And because you say man cannot choose God because he is a reprobate, we have this you might like to explain:

". . . . then [unregenerate] men began to call upon the name of the LORD." Genesis 4:26 (KJV) No gift of faith mentioned here.
In the last few pages, the timing of God and the timing of man has already been explained. I won't explain those things today
 

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Lets see if PPS can explain why you guys are so screwed up on the "if". "If" to me is a condition but it sounds like a verb to you like man is able to perform the conditions. Since man can't perform certian verbs on thier own then it must be a condition.

Neither. "IF' is a cunjunction which strongly suggests a condition needing to met or preserved. "Perform" is the verb along with "able" as in you are able to perform it.

God gave you and I the ability to perform it from creation. Read God's words to Cain: "IF" you do well, won't you be accepted?" Where in that is Cain "gifted" faith to believe? Having resisted and rejecting God's so-called by you and Nang, God's Grace, He went ahead and murdered his brother!!
 
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