ECT DID JESUS TEACH SOLA SCRIPTURA?

CabinetMaker

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Jesus relied on Tradition in his teaching, just like all Jews held to oral Tradition, including Christ's own apostles [source]. None of them held to "scripture alone." Try again.
Not Catholic traditions like the Marian doctrines. Or indulgences. Or purgatory. Show us where Paul, or any of the other Apostles, taught any of those. If you can't, then those traditions were not part of the oral tradition that Jesus and the Apostles referred to.
 

Cruciform

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Not Catholic traditions like the Marian doctrines. Or indulgences. Or purgatory. Show us where Paul, or any of the other Apostles, taught any of those. If you can't, then those traditions were not part of the oral tradition that Jesus and the Apostles referred to.
So, then, you acknowledge that Jesus and the apostles relied upon Tradition in their teaching, correct?
 

CabinetMaker

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So, then, you acknowledge that Jesus and the apostles relied upon Tradition in their teaching, correct?
There was never any doubt that the Paul did. Its just that nobody can honestly produce a list of the actual traditions that Paul was referring to in his letters. Give that the RCC traditions entered the RCC LONG after Paul wrote his letters, it is not reasonable to say that Paul taught them.
 

Cruciform

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There was never any doubt that the Paul did. Its just that nobody can honestly produce a list of the actual traditions that Paul was referring to in his letters. Give that the RCC traditions entered the RCC LONG after Paul wrote his letters, it is not reasonable to say that Paul taught them.
Then you agree with the OP that Jesus did not teach sola scriptura, correct?
 

Cruciform

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All that we have that he spoke is scripture.
This is merely a statement of your belief in sola scriptura, a teaching that is itself nowhere taught in Scripture, and which therefore directly refutes itself [source] [source].

Why would he not believe in sola scriptura?
Because it was neither Jewish, nor taught in the Torah (Old Testament) itself.



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Bright Raven

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This is merely a statement of your belief in sola scriptura, a teaching that is itself nowhere taught in Scripture, and which therefore directly refutes itself [source] [source].


Because it was neither Jewish, nor taught in the Torah (Old Testament) itself.

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2 Timothy 3:16
 

CabinetMaker

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Then you agree with the OP that Jesus did not teach sola scriptura, correct?

No. When Jesus taught from scripture, He taught only from scripture. As to oral traditions, I note your adroit attempt to side step the issue, we do not know what those traditions were. There is no record of them. This presents two issues the RCC cannot logically overcome. First, without knowing what the actual traditions were, we have no way to determine if our traditions agree with or oppose the traditions Pack taught. Second, teaching from oral tradition does not give us license to add our own traditions especially with nothing to gauge them against.
 

Cruciform

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That SCRIPTURE is God breathed. It is inspired.
That doesn't amount to sola scriptura. Catholics also believe that the Scriptures are inspired. So the basic authority of Scripture is not an issue between us, since we both accept Scripture as a divine authority. Thus, we both believe Paul's teaching in 2 Tim. 3:16.

What, then, was your point in citing 2 Tim. 3:16, since it has nothing at all to do with sola scriptura? :think:



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rougueone

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And to what "word" is Isaiah referring? Specifically, he's talking about the prophetic "word" that God had delivered through Isaiah himself. This is not a reference to "the Bible" (since there was no such thing at the time), let alone "the Bible ALONE." So much for this text in any way teaching sola scriptura.



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But the Bible, " Good News" is here now. And the ancient writings and letters somehow found there way into the Bible and back to Gods people.
http://www.greatsite.com/timeline-english-bible-history/
 
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