musterion
Well-known member
Not it doesn't.
Besides...your failure has Christ using John to address churches that, if anyone, Paul would have addressed at the time Paul was around to address them.
ECT MAD has no clue what "dispensation " means in scripture ! NONE
- Thread starter dodge
- Start date
Not it doesn't.
Besides...your failure has Christ using John to address churches that, if anyone, Paul would have addressed at the time Paul was around to address them.
You should really get yourself a history book, since you are so ignorant of the Old Testament.
Once again,(as most Darby Followers always do) you are taking OT passages that pertain to the Assyrians and Babylonians attacking Israel, the captivity in Babylon, the return from captivity to rebuild the temple, and the judgment upon Assyria and Babylon, as future events despite the fact that the prophecies were fulfilled around 2,500 years ago.
Nope, you don't like what scripture says because scripture proves your Dispensationalism wrong.
Joel 2 makes it crystal clear that what happened at Pentecost happened AFTER God restored the years the locusts had eaten.
Like I said, you don't like that because it ruins Dispensationalism.
You're confusing the destruction of Solomon's temple with the destruction of the Second Temple.
LOL.....nice try.
I can show you Preterism being taught in the 200's AD, 300's AD, 400's AD, and ever century up to and including this century.
You on the other hand can't show one person teaching Dispensationalism before John Nelson Darby invented it in 1830.
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John wrote to the church at Ephesus many years before Paul wrote his letter to the church at Ephesus.
Kind of like in Romans. Paul made it clear that many were in Christ long before he got there, and wrote to them.
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Jerry Shugart
Well-known member
As usual you prove that you have no clue about what the Bible teaches.
If you are right then the word "dispensation" as used in the Bible is a verb (according to you it is "the act").
But anyone with the slightest understanding of the dispensations knows that the word is a noun!
You cannot even get the most basic things correct.
dodge
New member
You might want to actually study the word Jerry it was never used as a time period the word literally means a dispensing as in Paul being dispensed GRACE by Jesus, and every time the word "dispensation" is used in scripture it means a dispensing NEVER a time period.
Depends on how it is used as a general principle, or rule of thumb.
A dispensation is a noun when it is referring to that which is dispensed; which is not a noun.
And then there is the verb "dispensing" or "delivering."
As in "I delivered unto you that which I also received" or which was also dispensed, or "delivered unto me..."
When that which is dispensed or delivered by the dispenser to the dispensee, it is a dispensation.
The following is a "carnal" example of that (as the Lord sometimes had the Apostle Paul put that, when using an example from every day life towards illustrating a principle, or principles).
Go down to your neighborhood store's paint department.
Ask to have mixed, say, a shot of sky blue in a gallon of white paint.
Someone will take that can of white paint, walk it over to the Paint Mix Dispenser, and press a series of buttons instructing it as to what quantity of blue mix to dispense into your gallon of white paint, as a dispensation of blue mix.
While you are waiting for that dispensation of blue mix to end, the little window on the Paint Mix Dispenser will read "dispensing."
The person who set all that in motion being you; the person who committed said dispensation unto said individual.
Should their boss show up to instruct them to go to lunch, they could say "after I am through with this order...for a dispensation of (from) this customer, has been committed unto me."
Lastly, as Stam also rightly pointed out, that said dispensation of blue mix, in this example, took a period of time for it's intended dispensing or dispensation to reach its intended fullness, does not mean that a dispensation is a period of time.
Only that it takes place over one.
Or as the Lord put it "It is not for you to know the times or the seasons which the Father has put in His own power" - in other words..."no man knoweth the day, nor the hour, but only the Father..."
The word "dispensation" encompasses all that as a general principle or rule of thumb, in The Lord's use of all it's related aspects through the pen of the Apostle Paul; whether or not the word is translated as such.
Yours in Him,
Rom. 5:8
Prov. 27:17
dodge
New member
I agree that Paul was used mightily by God ! Paul was dispensed grace which he then "dispensed" as the Lord led him . What I do not agree with is that the grace Paul was dispensed was different than the grace Peter or any of the other Apostles were "dispensed".
That same dispensing of grace was displayed in Acts 2 and Acts 4 when over 8000 were added to the church.
It has always been about Jesus and His D.B.R.and His message being told to those that sit in and are trapped by darkness.
Keep the Son in your eyes.
You appear unaware that Scripture relates that God has a TWO-Fold Purpose.
One aspect of which concerns the Earth.
The other aspect of which concerns the Heavenlies.
Both centered in His Son.
But As with any "Military" operation; the Air Command's purpose and instructions are not those of the Ground's and vice-versa.
Until you pause to study out whether said TWO-Fold Purpose is actually the case; you will continue to conclude that what you think I am.asserting, is what I am actually asserting, and therefore conclude against it.
Until you pause to apply the following THREE-Fold Principle, to my assertion to you, bro...
Acts 17:11 These were more noble than those in Thessalonica, in that they received the word with all readiness of mind, and searched the scriptures daily, whether those things were so. 17:12 Therefore many of them believed; also of honourable women which were Greeks, and of men, not a few.
For this that I am "opening and alleging" to you, "out of the scriptures" Acts 17:2, 3, concerning "the Father of our Lord Jesus Christ," concerns He "Of whom the whole family in heaven and earth is named," Eph. 3:14,15.
One more time, you deceiving punk: Does age determine the veracity of a "belief system?"
Yes, or no, wimp?
I've asked this weasel this question over 200 times, and the punk will not address it, as he is afraid of me, and exposing him, again, as the habitual liar of TOL
Go ahead, you slimy weasel-answer it.
He won't.
You can't show one person teaching "God the Father." before the Lord Jesus Christ did, or one person, teaching what you "teach"(loosely employed here)before you invented it.
Names-specifics.
This no chin weasel, wimp, won't touch this post. Watch.
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SaulToPaul 2
Well-known member
Saint john is not mincing words today.
I'm quite high spirited today, Sam.....You give him....he'll want.....
Jerry Shugart
Well-known member
How can you possibly be so stupid? The Greek word translated "dispensation" does not mean a dispensing! The Greek word is a "noun" and not a verb as you imagine. And I never said that a dispensation is a time period!
Not only do you misrepresent what others teach but you bring every single discussion down to the lowest level possible due to your ignorance!
If you really want to know the truth about the present dispensation then consider the following three quotes from the pen of Paul where he speaks of a "dispensation" that has been committed or given to him:
"If ye have heard of the dispensation of the grace of God which is given me toward you" (Eph. 3:2).
"Whereof I am made a minister, according to the dispensation of God which is given to me for you, to fulfil the word of God" (Col.1:25).
"...a dispensation of the gospel is committed unto me" (1 Cor.9:17).
The "dispensation" which was committed to Paul is in regard to "God's grace", a "ministry", and a "gospel." Here Paul sums up his dispensational responsibility:
"But none of these things move me, neither count I my life dear unto myself, so that I might finish my course with joy, and the ministry, which I have received of the Lord Jesus, to testify the gospel of the grace of God" (Acts 20: 24).
There can be no doubt whatsoever that the event which marks the beginning of the "dispensation of grace" is the preaching of the "gospel of grace."
But of course all of this is way above your understanding because you have not even learned that a dispensation is not a verb but instead a noun.
You are like a kid in kindergarten trying to understand the teaching found in the dispensational seminaries!
Jerry Shugart
Well-known member
To make a long story short, the LORD dispensed a "dispensation" or "steweardship" to Paul and Paul's dispensational (or stewardship) responsibility was to preach the gospel of grace.
It is the LORD who dispenses or gives dispensations (or stewardships) to people and it was Paul to whom He gave the dispensation in this case:
"Whereof I am made a minister, according to the dispensation of God which is given to me for you, to fulfil the word of God" (Col.1:25).
Notice it says "a" minister, and not "the" minister.
Jerry Shugart
Well-known member
No one said otherwise. But Paul was the very first minister to preach the gospel of grace.
(John 1:17) For the law was given through Moses; grace and truth came through Jesus Christ.
How did John know that grace came through Jesus Christ, many years before Paul?
Stam was just as confused as you are.
" Five of these dispensations, or periods of time, have been fulfilled; we are living in the sixth, probably toward its close, and have before us the seventh, and last: the millennium." Cyrus Scofield
Like I said before, the only thing more funny than a Darby Follower who denies Darby, is the Darby follower who tries to argue that dispensations are not periods of time.
Dispensationalism is a mess.
Jerry Shugart
Well-known member
What gospel did the Twelve preach at Luke 9:6?
If Peter was given the dispensation to preach the gospel of grace then why didn't he preach it on the day of of Pentecost?
They preached the good news of the kingdom of God.
(Luke 16:16)"The Law and the Prophets were proclaimed until John. Since that time, the good news of the kingdom of God is being preached, and everyone is forcing their way into it.[/I]
Peter did.
On the day of Pentecost, Peter made it clear that the gift of the Holy Spirt was now available for all who had faith.
That's the same grace message Paul preached.
Jerry Shugart
Well-known member
The gift of the Holy Spirit which believers received on the day of Pentecost is this one:
"Now there are diversities of gifts, but the same Spirit...For to one is given by the Spirit the word of wisdom; to another the word of knowledge by the same Spirit; To another faith by the same Spirit; to another the gifts of healing by the same Spirit; To another the working of miracles; to another prophecy; to another discerning of spirits; to another divers kinds of tongues; to another the interpretation of tongues" (1 Cor.12:4,8-10).
On the day of Pentecost Peter said nothing about the fact that the believer is justified freely by grace through the redemption that is in Christ Jesus and that is the heart and soul of the gospel of grace.