I never talk to Jesus or the Holy Spirit

marke

Well-known member
If you are going to use those words of Paul to determine what is important, then knowledge of the birth and life of Jesus Christ, not to mention His resurrection from the dead according to what the prophets told earlier, is also not to be taught.
His miracles and all the proofs of who He was are verboten.
That 'baptism is not the first thing one presents to unbelievers' is all Paul is saying, and that knowledge of Christ taking our sins on Himself and His resurrection from the dead, (the gospel}, were to be preached first.
One step at a time.

Paul said Jesus did not send him to baptize but to preach salvation.


1 Corinthians 1:17
For Christ sent me not to baptize, but to preach the gospel: not with wisdom of words, lest the cross of Christ should be made of none effect.
 

marke

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In this part of Rom 7, Paul is using the "present-narrative" tense.
Like a flashback.
It is clearly from his past because in verse 5 he said, "when we were in the flesh", indicating he was no longer in the flesh.

Look at Rom 7:23..."But I see another law in my members, warring against the law of my mind, and bringing me into captivity to the law of sin which is in my members."
Paul answers this lament in Rom 8:2..."For the law of the Spirit of life in Christ Jesus hath made me free from the law of sin and death."
Rom 7:23 is obviously from Paul's past.

Look at Rom 7:24..."O wretched man that I am! who shall deliver me from the body of this death?"
Paul already addressed this in Rom 6:6..."Knowing this, that our old man is crucified with him, that the body of sin might be destroyed, that henceforth we should not serve sin."
God has delivered Paul from the "body of this death" by its crucifixion with Christ...at its water baptism into Christ and into His death and burial.
Praise be to God !

You fail to notice the fact that Paul said he served the law of God with his mind while also serving sin with the flesh. That would be impossible for a lost man and impossible for a saved man if a saved man never had to deal with sin again after he was saved.
 

Right Divider

Body part
If Christians cannot sin then why are we told to confess our sins to be made clean?
"WE"? We are NOT told any such thing. You're reading someone else's mail.

WE, the body of Christ, are dead to sin. We, the body of Christ, were crucified with Christ.

John is talking to the nation of Israel. He's referring to things like these:
Num 5:5-10 (AKJV/PCE)
(5:5) ¶ And the LORD spake unto Moses, saying, (5:6) Speak unto the children of Israel, When a man or woman shall commit any sin that men commit, to do a trespass against the LORD, and that person be guilty; (5:7) Then they shall confess their sin which they have done: and he shall recompense his trespass with the principal thereof, and add unto it the fifth [part] thereof, and give [it] unto [him] against whom he hath trespassed. (5:8) But if the man have no kinsman to recompense the trespass unto, let the trespass be recompensed unto the LORD, [even] to the priest; beside the ram of the atonement, whereby an atonement shall be made for him. (5:9) And every offering of all the holy things of the children of Israel, which they bring unto the priest, shall be his. (5:10) And every man's hallowed things shall be his: whatsoever any man giveth the priest, it shall be his.
John is NOT preaching the gospel of the grace of God. John is preaching Jesus as the Christ. Both are great, but not the same thing.

https://graceambassadors.com/prophecy/peter-james-and-john-were-not-talking-to-you

P.S. Don't forget that John agreed to confine his ministry to the circumcision. Gal 2:9
 

marke

Well-known member
"WE"? We are NOT told any such thing. You're reading someone else's mail.

WE, the body of Christ, are dead to sin. We, the body of Christ, were crucified with Christ.

John is talking to the nation of Israel. He's referring to things like these:

John is NOT preaching the gospel of the grace of God. John is preaching Jesus as the Christ. Both are great, but not the same thing.

https://graceambassadors.com/prophecy/peter-james-and-john-were-not-talking-to-you

P.S. Don't forget that John agreed to confine his ministry to the circumcision. Gal 2:9
I hardly see how that could make sense. You are suggesting that Jewish believers need to confess their sins over and over after they are saved yet saved Gentiles no longer have any sins to confess?
 

Right Divider

Body part
I hardly see how that could make sense.
It's a good thing that truth is not determined by what "makes sense" to you.
You are suggesting that Jewish believers need to confess their sins over and over after they are saved yet saved Gentiles no longer have any sins to confess?
No, I'm claiming that there are dispensational differences between what the TWELVE apostles that will sit on TWELVE thrones judging the TWELVE tribes of Israel taught and lived and what the ONE apostle for the ONE body taught and lived.

We, the body of Christ, are to follow Paul as he follows Christ (1 Cor11:1)... not the TWELVE.

Paul is OUR pattern. 1 Tim 1:16
 

marke

Well-known member
It's a good thing that truth is not determined by what "makes sense" to you.

No, I'm claiming that there are dispensational differences between what the TWELVE apostles that will sit on TWELVE thrones judging the TWELVE tribes of Israel taught and lived and what the ONE apostle for the ONE body taught and lived.

We, the body of Christ, are to follow Paul as he follows Christ (1 Cor11:1)... not the TWELVE.

Paul is OUR pattern. 1 Tim 1:16
You did not explain. Who was being told in 1 John to "confess our sins" in 1 John, Christians, Jews, or some other peoples?
 

JudgeRightly

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You did not explain. Who was being told in 1 John to "confess our sins" in 1 John, Christians, Jews, or some other peoples?

Why do you think John violated His commitment in Galatians 2 to Paul to only go to the circumcision?

John is writing to Circumcision believers. He's not writing to Christians. That was Paul's role.
 

marke

Well-known member
Why do you think John violated His commitment in Galatians 2 to Paul to only go to the circumcision?

John is writing to Circumcision believers. He's not writing to Christians. That was Paul's role.
Who is told to confess their sins for cleansing in 1 John?
 

Hoping

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Can you explain how our crucifixion with Christ was physical as well as spiritual?
If "it" happened spiritually, it happened.
The "it" being crucifixion and burial with Christ.
For if they didn't actually happen, then neither did our being raised with Christ to walk in newness of life. (Rom 6:4)
If you believed they happened, they did happened.
 

Hoping

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If Christians cannot sin then why are we told to confess our sins to be made clean?

1 John 1

8 If we say that we have no sin, we deceive ourselves, and the truth is not in us.

9 If we confess our sins, he is faithful and just to forgive us our sins, and to cleanse us from all unrighteousness.

10 If we say that we have not sinned, we make him a liar, and his word is not in us.
The confession happens before 1 John 1:7"s cleansing by the blood of Christ.
Yes, Rom. 7:5 is referencing the past, while Romans 7:14-25 is referencing Paul's present after he had been saved.
No, it isn't.
Verses 14-24 are a narrative from Paul's past under the Law.
25 I thank God through Jesus Christ our Lord. So then with the mind I myself serve the law of God; but with the flesh the law of sin.
Verse 25 is the summary.
Paul's present state is under the control of his mind, and he again remembers his past condition while in the flesh.
Nobody can walk in both the flesh and in the Spirit.
Rom 8 further delineates the two.
 

JudgeRightly

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Even if we assume John is a Jew

There's no need to assume that. It's a matter of fact.

instead of a Christian how is it true that saved Jews must continually confess their sins after conversion while saved Gentiles supposedly do not?

Because they are under a different set of house rules than the Body of Christ.

If you go to a friends house, and decide to play pool, and you go to shoot the 8 ball in, and your friend stops you and says "you can't just shoot it in, you have to call the pocket!", and you said "but that's not how we do it at my place," he has a different set of house rules (the Greek word is "oikonomia" (literally "house rules") that he abides by for playing pool than you do.

In the same way, the House of Israel has different "house rules" than the "Body of Christ" does. The rule for the House of Israel is that they must continually confess their sin. The rule for the Body of Christ is that their sins are forgiven already, no need to confess them."
 

marke

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If "it" happened spiritually, it happened.
The "it" being crucifixion and burial with Christ.
For if they didn't actually happen, then neither did our being raised with Christ to walk in newness of life. (Rom 6:4)
If you believed they happened, they did happened.
Moses' baptism in the cloud and in the sea was a type, according to 1 Corinthians 10. It was not meant to suggest that all those who were baptized with Moses in the cloud and the see got saved.

1 Moreover, brethren, I would not that ye should be ignorant, how that all our fathers were under the cloud, and all passed through the sea;

2 And were all baptized unto Moses in the cloud and in the sea;

3 And did all eat the same spiritual meat;

4 And did all drink the same spiritual drink: for they drank of that spiritual Rock that followed them: and that Rock was Christ.

5 But with many of them God was not well pleased: for they were overthrown in the wilderness.

6 Now these things were our examples, to the intent we should not lust after evil things, as they also lusted.


Consider the word "examples" in this passage, translated from the Greek word "tupos," from which we get the English word "type.

Hebrews 9 explains that OT people, places, rites, and events were often 'types,' figures,' illustrations.' or shadows of truth not yet revealed in their day of the anti-types to come. Adam was a "figure" of the Lord Jesus, not the Lord Jesus Himself. Baptism in the cloud and sea were figures of the death and burial of the Lord Jesus and believers in Christ, not their actual deaths and burial in the Egyptian wilderness.

19 For when Moses had spoken every precept to all the people according to the law, he took the blood of calves and of goats, with water, and scarlet wool, and hyssop, and sprinkled both the book, and all the people,

20 Saying, This is the blood of the testament which God hath enjoined unto you.

21 Moreover he sprinkled with blood both the tabernacle, and all the vessels of the ministry.

22 And almost all things are by the law purged with blood; and without shedding of blood is no remission.

23 It was therefore necessary that the patterns of things in the heavens should be purified with these; but the heavenly things themselves with better sacrifices than these.

24 For Christ is not entered into the holy places made with hands, which are the figures of the true; but into heaven itself, now to appear in the presence of God for us:
 

Hoping

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The mistake would be to insist the baptism is in water and not the Spirit while insisting the crucifixion is in the Spirit and not on an actual wooden cross.
The best way to tell is written of in Rom 6:7..."For he that is dead is freed from sin."
Did your way provide you with a life without sinning?
Mine did...thanks be to God.
We must be careful to seek from God the wisdom to properly understand and interpret scripture. The Bible speaks of atonement for sins, both in the NT and in the OT.
Leviticus 4:31
And he shall take away all the fat thereof, as the fat is taken away from off the sacrifice of peace offerings; and the priest shall burn it upon the altar for a sweet savour unto the Lord; and the priest shall make an atonement for him, and it shall be forgiven him.

Romans 5:11
And not only so, but we also joy in God through our Lord Jesus Christ, by whom we have now received the atonement.

Just because the same word is used does not mean there are no differences in application or meaning.
That depends on the context of a word's use.
"Atone" above means the same thing in OT and NT.
But by very different means.
Likewise, you insist the remission of sins in Luke 3 is obtained by water baptism but that is not what the verse says. God says John Baptist preached repentance for the remission of sins, accompanied by the outward testimony of baptism.
Repentance is the "turn from", or, "change".
Baptism is the washing.
Jesus did not come preaching baptism, He came preaching repentance.

Matthew 9:13
But go ye and learn what that meaneth, I will have mercy, and not sacrifice: for I am not come to call the righteous, but sinners to repentance.
I beg to differ, as Mark ends with..."He that believeth and is baptized shall be saved; but he that believeth not shall be damned." (Mark 16:16)
Matthew ends with..."Go ye therefore, and teach all nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Ghost:" (Matt 28:19)
Luke ends with..."And that repentance and remission of sins should be preached in his name among all nations, beginning at Jerusalem." (Luke 24:47)
Three of four gospel accounts end with Jesus commanding baptism by water, as God is the only one who can Spirit baptize.
 

marke

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There's no need to assume that. It's a matter of fact.



Because they are under a different set of house rules than the Body of Christ.

If you go to a friends house, and decide to play pool, and you go to shoot the 8 ball in, and your friend stops you and says "you can't just shoot it in, you have to call the pocket!", and you said "but that's not how we do it at my place," he has a different set of house rules (the Greek word is "oikonomia" (literally "house rules") that he abides by for playing pool than you do.

In the same way, the House of Israel has different "house rules" than the "Body of Christ" does. The rule for the House of Israel is that they must continually confess their sin. The rule for the Body of Christ is that their sins are forgiven already, no need to confess them."
Are you suggesting that Jews who turn to Jesus for salvation cannot have their sins washed away like others who get saved?
 

Hoping

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Banned
Tongues were never intended to be a sign to the Church. Speaking in tongues was a sign to the Jews that faded away after the Bible was completed and God had set the Jews aside for the church age.

1 Corinthians 1:22
For the Jews require a sign, and the Greeks seek after wisdom:
1 Corinthians 13
8 Charity never faileth: but whether there be prophecies, they shall fail; whether there be tongues, they shall cease; whether there be knowledge, it shall vanish away.
9 For we know in part, and we prophesy in part.
10 But when that which is perfect is come, then that which is in part shall be done away.

1 Corinthians 14
21 In the law it is written, With men of other tongues and other lips will I speak unto this people; and yet for all that will they not hear me, saith the Lord.
22 Wherefore tongues are for a sign, not to them that believe, but to them that believe not: but prophesying serveth not for them that believe not, but for them which believe.
You write as thought there were no more unbelievers.
I can't agree with you here.
 

marke

Well-known member
The best way to tell is written of in Rom 6:7..."For he that is dead is freed from sin."
Did your way provide you with a life without sinning?
Mine did...thanks be to God.

It is an error to dismiss, ignore, or change the meaning of other passages so you can maintain support for your erroneous interpretation of one passage you seem particularly focused on.

This message is to those who have been saved by faith in Jesus on the basis of His shed blood to wash away their sins:

John 1

1 That which was from the beginning, which we have heard, which we have seen with our eyes, which we have looked upon, and our hands have handled, of the Word of life;

2 (For the life was manifested, and we have seen it, and bear witness, and shew unto you that eternal life, which was with the Father, and was manifested unto us

3 That which we have seen and heard declare we unto you, that ye also may have fellowship with us: and truly our fellowship is with the Father, and with his Son Jesus Christ.

4 And these things write we unto you, that your joy may be full.

5 This then is the message which we have heard of him, and declare unto you, that God is light, and in him is no darkness at all.

6 If we say that we have fellowship with him, and walk in darkness, we lie, and do not the truth:

7 But if we walk in the light, as he is in the light, we have fellowship one with another, and the blood of Jesus Christ his Son cleanseth us from all sin.

8 If we say that we have no sin, we deceive ourselves, and the truth is not in us.

9 If we confess our sins, he is faithful and just to forgive us our sins, and to cleanse us from all unrighteousness.

10 If we say that we have not sinned, we make him a liar, and his word is not in us.

 
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