The bible makes a lot more sense when you understand who the Gentiles are.....

[flintstoned]

After all, Yahweh is the God of Israel.....the bible is for and about Israel, and the Gentiles are actually Israelites. God always had a plan to reunify Israel after it was split into two kingdoms (House of Judah and House Israel). That is why He sent Jesus. Yahweh was married to both sisters: the House of Judah (the Jews) and the House of Israel (who were NOT Jews, which is why they were called Gentiles by the Jews). Both of these kingdoms made up all of Israel, which is why all of the tribes (Jews and non-Jews) are considered Israelites. When God divorced the House of Israel, they were scattered among the nations. But God had a plan to reconcile them......through Jesus.

The only way the wife (Northern Kingdom Israel) could be released of her fate of having been put away and divorced by Yahweh was for Yahweh (her husband) to die which would annul and dissolve original marriage contract. Paul understood that when, using the law to explain, he reminded the Jews (who knew the law) that the law only has jurisdiction over a person until their death. When the person dies, any judgments, contracts, or obligations are then dissolved.Now free from the curse of her broken marriage covenant, Israel could actually remarry without being called an adulteress. However, how could she be rejoined to her groom if he was in the grave? If Jesus remained dead, then no remarriage between him and Israel could take place, despite her new freedom. Therefore, Jesus had to not only die to free Israel, but had to also rise from the dead so that she could remarry her former husband, who was in reality a New Husband.


http://www.losttribes.net/menu/gentile.html

https://www.ucg.org/bible-study-too...ain-in-bible-prophecy/are-all-israelites-jews

http://www.douglashamp.com/gods-div...storation-of-israel-through-the-new-covenant/

 

[Mixed_Brown]

After all, Yahweh is the God of Israel.....the bible is for and about Israel, and the Gentiles are actually Israelites. God always had a plan to reunify Israel after it was split into two kingdoms (House of Judah and House Israel). That is why He sent Jesus. Yahweh was married to both sisters: the House of Judah (the Jews) and the House of Israel (who were NOT Jews, which is why they were called Gentiles by the Jews). Both of these kingdoms made up all of Israel, which is why all of the tribes (Jews and non-Jews) are considered Israelites. When God divorced the House of Israel, they were scattered among the nations. But God had a plan to reconcile them......through Jesus.

The only way the wife (Northern Kingdom Israel) could be released of her fate of having been put away and divorced by Yahweh was for Yahweh (her husband) to die which would annul and dissolve original marriage contract. Paul understood that when, using the law to explain, he reminded the Jews (who knew the law) that the law only has jurisdiction over a person until their death. When the person dies, any judgments, contracts, or obligations are then dissolved.Now free from the curse of her broken marriage covenant, Israel could actually remarry without being called an adulteress. However, how could she be rejoined to her groom if he was in the grave? If Jesus remained dead, then no remarriage between him and Israel could take place, despite her new freedom. Therefore, Jesus had to not only die to free Israel, but had to also rise from the dead so that she could remarry her former husband, who was in reality a New Husband.


http://www.losttribes.net/menu/gentile.html

https://www.ucg.org/bible-study-too...ain-in-bible-prophecy/are-all-israelites-jews

http://www.douglashamp.com/gods-div...storation-of-israel-through-the-new-covenant/

This is my first time hearing this.
Do you have any scriptural evidence for this these claims.

If so please provide them?

 

[Dartman]

The Gentiles are every ethnicity that isn't directly descendant from Israel/Jacob.
The New Testament was ENTIRELY written in "the time of the Gentiles". Jesus had warned Israel, that his God was going to take the Kingdom from them, and give it to the Gentiles;

Matt 21:42-43 Jesus saith unto them, Did ye never read in the scriptures, The stone which the builders rejected, the same is become the head of the corner: this is the Lord's doing, and it is marvellous in our eyes?
43 Therefore say I unto you, The kingdom of God shall be taken from you, and given to a nation bringing forth the fruits thereof.

Paul teaches that ALL of those in Israel, who rejected Jesus, were "broken off" the olive tree, and the Gentiles were "grafted in";

Rom 11:17-27
17 But if some of the branches were broken off, and you, being a wild olive, were grafted in among them and became partaker with them of the rich root of the olive tree,
18 do not be arrogant toward the branches; but if you are arrogant, remember that it is not you who supports the root, but the root supports you.
19 You will say then, "Branches were broken off so that I might be grafted in."
20 Quite right, they were broken off for their unbelief, but you stand by your faith. Do not be conceited, but fear;
21 for if God did not spare the natural branches, He will not spare you, either.
22 Behold then the kindness and severity of God; to those who fell, severity, but to you, God's kindness, if you continue in His kindness; otherwise you also will be cut off.
23 And they also, if they do not continue in their unbelief, will be grafted in, for God is able to graft them in again.
24 For if you were cut off from what is by nature a wild olive tree, and were grafted contrary to nature into a cultivated olive tree, how much more will these who are the natural branches be grafted into their own olive tree?
25 For I do not want you, brethren, to be uninformed of this mystery — so that you will not be wise in your own estimation — that a partial hardening has happened to Israel until the fullness of the Gentiles has come in;

At the END of the "fullness of the Gentiles" or the "time of the Gentiles", Jesus will return, establish a worldwide kingdom for his God, with Zion as the location of his throne , and bring EVERY surviving Israelite back to the wilderness of Israel. Jesus will PURGE out the rebels, and bring the ones that accept his rule back into their land, and thus grafting them back into the promises;


26 and so all Israel will be saved; just as it is written, "THE DELIVERER WILL COME FROM ZION, HE WILL REMOVE UNGODLINESS FROM JACOB."
27 "THIS IS MY COVENANT WITH THEM, WHEN I TAKE AWAY THEIR SINS."

 

[flintstoned]

This is my first time hearing this.
Do you have any scriptural evidence for this these claims.

If so please provide them?

I provided links in the OP that contain references to scripture. I don't know if there is any one site that combines all of this information together; I just had to research it.

Here are a couple of other websites which reference scripture which you can then confirm on your own:

http://olivetjournal.com/the-lost-sheep-of-israel-the-gospel/

http://www.hebroots.org/hebrootsarchive/0011/1111/001111_h.html

 

[Mixed_Brown]

I provided links in the OP that contain references to scripture. I don't know if there is any one site that combines all of this information together; I just had to research it.

Here are a couple of other websites which reference scripture which you can then confirm on your own:

http://olivetjournal.com/the-lost-sheep-of-israel-the-gospel/

http://www.hebroots.org/hebrootsarchive/0011/1111/001111_h.html

I have so say I don't like reading links in threads as I don't know which points in the threads the users agree with.

It's much easier if you make your point and then give your evidence in your own words so that other users can discuss your claim.

That being said I briefly looked at a couple links. The first one only had paragraphs of assertions with no scriptural evidence.
The second asserts that verses in Hebrews 10 exactly what you said, but if you carry on reading it's plain to see you see that most of hebrews 11 refutes that claim.

Thank your response and I'm always intrested how individuals come to certain conclusions, but because of a huge lack of understanding of scriptures and a lot of claims with no evidence, I don't think I will be taking any more time to read through the links you posted.

 

[flintstoned]

I have so say I don't like reading links in threads as I don't know which points in the threads the users agree with.

It's much easier if you make your point and then give your evidence in your own words so that other users can discuss your claim.

That being said I briefly looked at a couple links. The first one only had paragraphs of assertions with no scriptural evidence.
The second asserts that verses in Hebrews 10 exactly what you said, but if you carry on reading it's plain to see you see that most of hebrews 11 refutes that claim.

Thank your response and I'm always intrested how individuals come to certain conclusions, but because of a huge lack of understanding of scriptures and a lot of claims with no evidence, I don't think I will be taking any more time to read through the links you posted.

Hmmmm, I just read through Hebrew 11 again and do not see where it refutes any of these claims.... Can you explain how or what you mean by that?

 

[aikido7]

After all, Yahweh is the God of Israel.....the bible is for and about Israel, and the Gentiles are actually Israelites. God always had a plan to reunify Israel after it was split into two kingdoms (House of Judah and House Israel). That is why He sent Jesus. Yahweh was married to both sisters: the House of Judah (the Jews) and the House of Israel (who were NOT Jews, which is why they were called Gentiles by the Jews). Both of these kingdoms made up all of Israel, which is why all of the tribes (Jews and non-Jews) are considered Israelites. When God divorced the House of Israel, they were scattered among the nations. But God had a plan to reconcile them......through Jesus.

The only way the wife (Northern Kingdom Israel) could be released of her fate of having been put away and divorced by Yahweh was for Yahweh (her husband) to die which would annul and dissolve original marriage contract. Paul understood that when, using the law to explain, he reminded the Jews (who knew the law) that the law only has jurisdiction over a person until their death. When the person dies, any judgments, contracts, or obligations are then dissolved.Now free from the curse of her broken marriage covenant, Israel could actually remarry without being called an adulteress. However, how could she be rejoined to her groom if he was in the grave? If Jesus remained dead, then no remarriage between him and Israel could take place, despite her new freedom. Therefore, Jesus had to not only die to free Israel, but had to also rise from the dead so that she could remarry her former husband, who was in reality a New Husband.


http://www.losttribes.net/menu/gentile.html

https://www.ucg.org/bible-study-too...ain-in-bible-prophecy/are-all-israelites-jews

http://www.douglashamp.com/gods-div...storation-of-israel-through-the-new-covenant/

Jesus said his message was to the House of Israel only. He mocked the Gentiles' praying style and referred to them as "dogs."

It was only after Jesus was dead that the gospel writers' began to claim his teachings were for "the nations."

 

[iamaberean]

Good post!

Mat 10:5 These twelve Jesus sent forth, and commanded them, saying, Go not into the way of the Gentiles, and into any city of the Samaritans enter ye not:
Mat 10:6 But go rather to the lost sheep of the house of Israel.
Mat 10:7 And as ye go, preach, saying, The kingdom of heaven is at hand.

Another source for you. Download pdf file.
https://www.thetrumpet.com/literature/books_and_booklets/44

 

[rstrats]

flintstoned,

As iamaberean noted: "These twelve Jesus sent forth, and commanded them, saying, Go not into the way of the Gentiles...But go rather to the lost sheep of the house of Israel. (Matthew 10:5-6)"

But aren't you saying that the house of Israel is Gentile?

 

[jamie]

Two of the tribes of Israel were native Egyptians. (Genesis 48:15-16)

 

[chair]

Two of the tribes of Israel were native Egyptians. (Genesis 48:15-16)

Just like any anybody born in the US is a "Native American"?

 

[Stripe]

Two of the tribes of Israel were native Egyptians. (Genesis 48:15-16)

:AMR:

Why do people make claims then post scripture that says nothing like what they proposed? :idunno:

 

[iamaberean]

Two of the tribes of Israel were native Egyptians. (Genesis 48:15-16)

By Arthur R. Bassett

In his article entitled “Joseph, Model of Excellence” (Sept. 1980, p. 9), the author writes that Joseph’s wife, Asenath, “was not only Egyptian, but a daughter of an Egyptian priest,” thus conveying the idea that her two sons, Ephraim and Manessah, were of “half-Egyptian” blood. If that were so, then both of them would have been of a lineage which at that time “could not have the rights of Priesthood” (Abr. 1:27). (from Book of Abraham, Jesus Christ Latter Day Saints)

Actually, the Pharaoh of Joseph’s time was not Egyptian by blood, but was of the Hyksos, a nomadic people who swept into Egypt from the Arabian peninsula. The Hyksos were a Semitic people, which made them distant relatives of Joseph and his family. Asenath was a descendant of these Semitic Hyksos, not an Egyptian.

 

[iamaberean]

After all, Yahweh is the God of Israel.....the bible is for and about Israel, and the Gentiles are actually Israelites. God always had a plan to reunify Israel after it was split into two kingdoms (House of Judah and House Israel). That is why He sent Jesus. Yahweh was married to both sisters: the House of Judah (the Jews) and the House of Israel (who were NOT Jews, which is why they were called Gentiles by the Jews). Both of these kingdoms made up all of Israel, which is why all of the tribes (Jews and non-Jews) are considered Israelites. When God divorced the House of Israel, they were scattered among the nations. But God had a plan to reconcile them......through Jesus.

The only way the wife (Northern Kingdom Israel) could be released of her fate of having been put away and divorced by Yahweh was for Yahweh (her husband) to die which would annul and dissolve original marriage contract. Paul understood that when, using the law to explain, he reminded the Jews (who knew the law) that the law only has jurisdiction over a person until their death. When the person dies, any judgments, contracts, or obligations are then dissolved.Now free from the curse of her broken marriage covenant, Israel could actually remarry without being called an adulteress. However, how could she be rejoined to her groom if he was in the grave? If Jesus remained dead, then no remarriage between him and Israel could take place, despite her new freedom. Therefore, Jesus had to not only die to free Israel, but had to also rise from the dead so that she could remarry her former husband, who was in reality a New Husband.

It seems like you and I continue to study like topics.

The word GENTILE is not used in any of the ancient manuscripts, simply because there was no such word in the Hebrew or Greek languages. The word GENTILE as used in our modern Bible versions, including the "much loved" King James Version, in the Old Testament, always comes from the Hebrew word "goy," (singular) and "goyim", (plural). It is translated five different ways in the Old Testament, according to Strong's Exhaustive Concordance of the Bible; "goy or goyim (singular or plural)", a foreign NATION hence GENTILEGENTILE; (2) HEATHEN; (3) NATION, and (4) PEOPLE, or ANOTHER."



Here is the total rendering.

https://israelect.com/reference/JackMohr/jm005.htm

 

[aikido7]

To be blunt, the Gentiles were pagans.

Jesus referred to them as “dogs” and mocked their praying style.
Jesus made clear his message and mission was to the House of Israel.

The bitter irony that today’s Christianity has become a message meant for Jews preached to a church full of Gentiles.

 

[aikido7]

“Gentiles were Israelites?”
The Israelites were Jews.
And Gentiles were certainly not Jews.

Gentiles [the goyim] were defined as all nations except the Jews.

 

[glorydaz]

To be blunt, the Gentiles were pagans.

Jesus referred to them as “dogs” and mocked their praying style.
Jesus made clear his message and mission was to the House of Israel.

The bitter irony that today’s Christianity has become a message meant for Jews preached to a church full of Gentiles.

That is true for a lot of Christianity, but not all. Those who are able to understand the Gospel of the Kingdom (being for the Jews), and Paul's Gospel of Grace, have rightly divided the word of God.

 

[glorydaz]

:AMR:

Why do people make claims then post scripture that says nothing like what they proposed? :idunno:

They see something that isn't there. :chuckle:

 

[aikido7]

That is true for a lot of Christianity, but not all. Those who are able to understand the Gospel of the Kingdom (being for the Jews), and Paul's Gospel of Grace, have rightly divided the word of God.

Jesus teaching of “the Kingdom of God” were freely given to all.
But you are correct: Originally, of course, Jesus and his followers were all Jews. He clearly said his message was meant for the House of Israel.

It seems difficult indeed to be able to read a human heart and gaze into someone else’s soul.
I remain skeptical.
In my view, we have no privilege to know who and who has not “rightly divided the word of God.”

Jesus called his mission to preach the Kingdom of God in parables for a damn good reason.

He was making a sharp comparison to the Roman Empire. The parables sent an invitation to his followers to imagine what it might be like to have God sit on the ruling throne instead of Augustus Caesar.

His followers spoke high treason whenever they said “Jesus is Lord and Caesar AIN’T."

 

[glorydaz]

Jesus teaching of “the Kingdom of God” were freely given to all.
But you are correct: Originally, of course, Jesus and his followers were all Jews. He clearly said his message was meant for the House of Israel.

It seems difficult indeed to be able to read a human heart and gaze into someone else’s soul.
I remain skeptical.
In my view, we have no privilege to know who and who has not “rightly divided the word of God.”

Jesus called his mission to preach the Kingdom of God in parables for a damn good reason.

He was making a sharp comparison to the Roman Empire. The parables sent an invitation to his followers to imagine what it might be like to have God sit on the ruling throne instead of Augustus Caesar.

His followers spoke high treason whenever they said “Jesus is Lord and Caesar AIN’T."

And the Risen Lord appeared to Paul and sent him out to preach the Gospel of Grace. The Gospel of Grace was not preached by our Lord when He walked this earth, or by the Apostles. It was given specifically to Paul, as Paul makes quite plain here.

Galatians 1:11-12
11 But I certify you, brethren, that the gospel which was preached of me is not after man. 12 For I neither received it of man, neither was I taught it, but by the revelation of Jesus Christ.​