Right Divider
Body part
No, the NC has not yet begun due to the rejection of it by one of the parties in the agreement.
Neither Jew nor Greek....
- Thread starter Right Divider
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Right Divider
Body part
Prove it. I've noticed that like lots of others around here, you expect us to accept your opinions as facts. They are not.
Interplanner
Well-known member
there was no rejection. The other party was not a group of humans. It was Christ. He performed everything necessary for the Spirit to be given as he wishes. Gal 3:16.
Right Divider
Body part
So you're like Tet. You misunderstand a half a dozen verses and base everything else on that? Well done!
Read the scripture and BELIEVE it:
Jeremiah 31:31-33
[31] Behold, the days come, saith the LORD, that I will make a new covenant with the house of Israel, and with the house of Judah: [32] Not according to the covenant that I made with their fathers in the day that I took them by the hand to bring them out of the land of Egypt; which my covenant they brake, although I was an husband unto them, saith the LORD: [33] But this shall be the covenant that I will make with the house of Israel; After those days, saith the LORD, I will put my law in their inward parts, and write it in their hearts; and will be their God, and they shall be my people.
It's just so plain that even a child can understand it.[31] Behold, the days come, saith the LORD, that I will make a new covenant with the house of Israel, and with the house of Judah: [32] Not according to the covenant that I made with their fathers in the day that I took them by the hand to bring them out of the land of Egypt; which my covenant they brake, although I was an husband unto them, saith the LORD: [33] But this shall be the covenant that I will make with the house of Israel; After those days, saith the LORD, I will put my law in their inward parts, and write it in their hearts; and will be their God, and they shall be my people.
Interplanner
Well-known member
It is not to be read directly. It is veiled. It is to be read as the NT does. That is how I learned that Christ himself was the other party of the covenant, Is 49:8. Btw that Jer passage does ultimately name THE LORD OUR RIGHTEOUSNESS as the anticipated king anyway. That sounds familiar from Romans and from I Cor 1.
this is why the sermon in Acts 13 mentions that the promises to David were transfered to Christ, quoting Isaiah on that.
this is why the sermon in Acts 13 mentions that the promises to David were transfered to Christ, quoting Isaiah on that.
Right Divider
Body part
You ask stupid questions. You think that you're so sneaky. You are sneaky, just like your daddy Satan.
Where do you get your "ideas"?
Right Divider
Body part
With this sort of "interpretation", anyone can make the scripture say anything that they want.
I guess that the writer of Hebrews did not get your memo.
Interplanner
Well-known member
That's hardly a problem. It is quite clear that the NC is Christ in Hebrews and that it is in effect now, and that it must not be disregarded on pain of the disaster that would happen in 1st century Judea.
There is nothing subjective about ACts 13 saying the things promised to David now belong to Christ. But of course the rest of Acts and the NT show that it is not a theocracy he had in mind anyway. It is what Christ is now doing in his mission.
How is asking if the New Covenant was made or not a stupid question?
Was the NC made?
It's so simple, you can give a yes or no answer?
Right Divider
Body part
From someone that says this of plainly written scripture: "It is not to be read directly"
That PARTICULAR scripture is not veiled in the slightest. You want it to be so that you can perpetuate your myth.
Please feel free to teach us ALL about the gospel of the grace of God WITHOUT using any of Paul's writings.
Are you trying to pass Tet for the biggest lair on TOL?
Right Divider
Body part
I already have, you deceiver.
SaulToPaul 2
Well-known member
Yes, he has been shown over and over that the spirit of the new testament is the righteousness of God, which Paul ministered through the gospel of Christ.
The results of the letter of the new covenant found in Jeremiah 31 are meaningless to Tet.
Interplanner
Well-known member
Paul himself said the old covenant materials were veiled!
If such OT material was not veiled, why does the crowd in Jesus time have such a fundamental question as Jn 12:34? why does Paul say that the material was veiled or hidden until the Gospel illuminated it, in Rom 16, Col 1, Eph 3?
Why would I teach without Paul's letters?
I have no idea what this last question is.
[sorry I don't know how to quote parts of posts]
Right Divider
Body part
So nobody could understand it? I like that you DON'T post the scripture that you're "referring" to, so we can "discuss" it.
You are a confused mess.
So you think that "the people" in John 12 represent 100% of Israel?
God did not write the scripture to have it ALL remain "veiled" until now.
Because many claim that what Paul taught was NOTHING new and that it was EXACTLY the same as what was taught before him. So I challenge them to show us all the gospel of the grace of God WITHOUT using any Paul.
turbosixx
New member
Eph. 2:15 by abolishing in His flesh the enmity, which is the Law of commandments contained in ordinances, so that in Himself He might make the two into one new man, thus establishing peace, 16 and might reconcile them both in one body to God through the cross, by it having put to death the enmity.
Col. 2:14 having canceled out the certificate of debt consisting of decrees against us, which was hostile to us; and He has taken it out of the way, having nailed it to the cross.
Right Divider
Body part
These were NOT Jesus Christ on EARTH. What you are quoting is revelation given to Paul.
Please FOCUS.
Why does God still show us PROSELYTES in Acts 6? Everyone else involved in that chapter is a Jew (Hebrew speaking or Greek speaking).
They were still communing (they all sold ALL that they had) and were receiving their daily bread (i.e., tables were being served, they had ALL things common [Acts 2:44]).
turbosixx
New member
Revelation given to Paul from Jesus because it was more than the 12 could handle while he was on the earth.
Jn. 16:12 "I have many more things to say to you, but you cannot bear them now. 13 But when He, the Spirit of truth, comes, He will guide you into all the truth;
When does Paul say the dividing barrier came down? At the cross. Does him saying it verse Jesus or the 12 change when it came down?
Eph. 2:14 For He Himself is our peace, who made both groups into one and broke down the barrier of the dividing wall, 15 by abolishing in His flesh the enmity, which is the Law of commandments contained in ordinances, so that in Himself He might make the two into one new man, thus establishing peace, 16 and might reconcile them both in one body to God through the cross, by it having put to death the enmity.
Right Divider
Body part
It's a wild assumption that THIS is what Jesus Christ was talking about.
Why would Jesus delay teaching the 12 apostles for the 12 tribes of Israel something and then INSTEAD reveal it to the apostle of the Gentiles?
This sheer wild speculation that has no basis in fact.
Indeed, Paul wrote these things and God revealed to HIM.
This was a mystery hid in God. This does NOT invalidate what Jesus taught the 12 or what the 12 preached to Israel in early Acts.
turbosixx
New member
I agree, what Paul tells us does not invalidate what Jesus taught. I agree, the mystery that the Gentiles would be fellow heirs was not made know while Jesus walked the earth. It was to be revealed latter but its revelation isn't the basis for the change. A law doesn't go into effect when it's made public, it goes into effect as soon as it's signed.
Paul tells us when the dividing wall came down, at the cross.
16 and might reconcile them both in one body to God through the cross,