ECT MADs Are Weird...

Danoh

New member
Per Tet,

Circumcised Gentile that believed in God- could be a Jew
Circumcised Israelite that believed in God- could not be a Jew

:idunno:

Tet actually has a good point; his timeline is off, though.

His point is the actual sense of that conversation between the Lord and that Samaritan woman in John 4:9 and John 4:12.

The Samaritan woman's understanding had been the case for many, many centuries.

Where Tet is off in this, is his having failed to see what the Lord said to her about how that His arrival signaled the Israelite/Jew distinction was coming to an end.

Thus, His words in John 10:14 and John 10:16, just as prophesied in Ezekiel 34:23 and Ezekiel 37:19.

Thus, Luke's words in Acts 2:5 and Peter's words in Acts 2:14; in Acts 2:22; and in Acts 2:39.

Thus, Paul's use of both terms "Israel" and "Jew" interchangeably, his ministry recognizing there was now no longer the two house distinction; only that they had collectively rejected it in their rejection of the Spirit's ministry to them through the Twelve prior to Paul.
 

tetelestai

LIFETIME MEMBER
LIFETIME MEMBER
Circumcised Israelite that believed in God- could not be a Jew

Only if they wanted to.

Again, stick of Judah/stick of Joseph.......house of Israel/house of Judah

I don't know how much clearer the OT can be. There are chapters upon chapters of the division between Israel and Judah.

For someone who goes on and on about mixing and blending things together, you sure are a hypocrite when it comes to Jews and Israelites.
 

tetelestai

LIFETIME MEMBER
LIFETIME MEMBER
Where Tet is off in this, is his having failed to see what the Lord said to her about how that His arrival signaled the Israelite/Jew distinction was coming to an end.

It came to an end at the cross.

The stick of Joseph was joined with the stick of Judah at the cross, and Christ Jesus became their one King.

The NC was implemented at the cross. The house of Israel and the house of Judah became one house.

Thus, Paul's use of both terms "Israel" and "Jew" interchangeably, his ministry recognizing there was now no longer the two house distinction; only that they had collectively rejected it in their rejection of the Spirit's ministry to them through the Twelve prior to Paul.

You're half right.

Paul still made the distinction in Romans 11.

Peter still made the distinction also.
 

tetelestai

LIFETIME MEMBER
LIFETIME MEMBER
The Samaritan woman's understanding had been the case for many, many centuries.

The Samaritan woman was an Israelite. She said her father was Jacob.

However, God had divorced the House of Israel. It wasn't until the death of the husband (God), that the husband could remarry His wife. That's how all of Israel was saved. That was the fulness of the Gentiles (Gen 48:19)

Paul explains this in Romans 7
 

Danoh

New member
It came to an end at the cross.

The stick of Joseph was joined with the stick of Judah at the cross, and Christ Jesus became their one King.

The NC was implemented at the cross. The house of Israel and the house of Judah became one house.



You're half right.

Paul still made the distinction in Romans 11.

Peter still made the distinction also.


Lol, the part where I am half wrong is in one of your endless books.

And STP would not disagree with my post; he just did not elaborate as I do; being the rantin and ravin fool I am.
 

Danoh

New member
The Samaritan woman was an Israelite. She said her father was Jacob.

However, God had divorced the House of Israel. It wasn't until the death of the husband (God), that the husband could remarry His wife. That's how all of Israel was saved. That was the fulness of the Gentiles (Gen 48:19)

Paul explains this in Romans 7

The point is they were still divided at that point in time.
 

tetelestai

LIFETIME MEMBER
LIFETIME MEMBER
Thus, Paul's use of both terms "Israel" and "Jew" interchangeably, his ministry recognizing there was now no longer the two house distinction;

That would mean the New Covenant was made.

Jer 31 tells us there is a distinction between the two houses until the NC is made.

Are you now going to admit that the NC was made?
 

tetelestai

LIFETIME MEMBER
LIFETIME MEMBER
The point is they were still divided at that point in time.

Yes, that was before the cross.

They were divided up until the cross.

The Bible tells us that the Israelites from the 10 tribes would grow to be as numerous as the stars and sand.

Joseph had the birthright blessing. Jacob told Joseph that Ephraim and Manasseh would become great peoples and great nations.

Not one of you Dispies has an explanation for Gen 48:19

Without understanding Gen 48:19, you will never be able to understand Romans 11.

That's why every one of you Dispies is wrong about Romans 11
 

Danoh

New member
That would mean the New Covenant was made.

Jer 31 tells us there is a distinction between the two houses until the NC is made.

Are you now going to admit that the NC was made?


Here we go with your attempt at a double-bind again via your one more of "hah, hah, caught you" delusions again.

I've yet to read where Mid-Acts denies ISRAEL'S New Covenant PROMISE TO THE HOUSE OF ISRAEL was being offered THEM at Pentecost.
 

tetelestai

LIFETIME MEMBER
LIFETIME MEMBER
I've yet to read where Mid-Acts denies ISRAEL'S New Covenant PROMISE TO THE HOUSE OF ISRAEL was being offered THEM at Pentecost.

The NC wasn't "offered". It was implemented with the shed blood of Christ Jesus.

Just go on record, and tell us whether or not you believe the NC was put in place at the cross?

If yes, is it it still in place?

If no, then you are caught in a "gotcha" because you just said Paul didn't acknowledge a two house distinction anymore.

If "yes-then no it is not still in place", you're going to have a hard time showing with scripture where the NC was withdrawn after being made.

See Danoh, when you try to defend Dispensationalism you can't, because the truth always prevails, and Dispensationalism is one of the furthest things from the truth.

I don't expect you to try and explain your way out of the hole you just dug yourself in, I expect a post from you with no scripture that goes on and on about the books I allegedly read.
 

Danoh

New member
Yes, that was before the cross.

They were divided up until the cross.

The Bible tells us that the Israelites from the 10 tribes would grow to be as numerous as the stars and sand.

Joseph had the birthright blessing. Jacob told Joseph that Ephraim and Manasseh would become great peoples and great nations.

Not one of you Dispies has an explanation for Gen 48:19

Without understanding Gen 48:19, you will never be able to understand Romans 11.

That's why every one of you Dispies is wrong about Romans 11


More of your nonsense - Genesis 48:19 is talking about what would become of many a son of Jacob as they became dispersed and intermingled with the Gentile over the centuries.

Its talking about all sorts of physical sons of Jacob - they ended up in Spain - Spanish Jews. Russian Jews, Polish Jews, Cuban Jews - you name it - that Book STANDS ALONE!

Try both reading AND BELIEVING IT sometime, that these things not be "hidden from" you.
 

tetelestai

LIFETIME MEMBER
LIFETIME MEMBER
More of your nonsense - Genesis 48:19 is talking about what would become of many a son of Jacob as they became dispersed and intermingled with the Gentile over the centuries.

That's not what Gen 48:19 says

(Gen 48:19 KJV) And his father refused, and said, I know it, my son, I know it: he also shall become a people, and he also shall be great: but truly his younger brother shall be greater than he, and his seed shall become a multitude of nations.

Jacob tells Joseph that Ephraim's seed would become a multitude of nations.

Jacob doesn't tell him that Ephraim's seed would live amongst other nations.

Try again.

Its talking about all sorts of physical sons of Jacob - they ended up in Spain - Spanish Jews. Russian Jews, Polish Jews, Cuban Jews - you name it - that Book STANDS ALONE!

You can't be serious.

The stick of Ephraim was joined with the stick of Judah at the cross. There was no such thing as Russia, Poland, or Cuba before the cross,

Also, there was there no such thing as a "JEW" when Jacob, Joseph, Ephraim, and Manasseh were in that room together.

Try both reading AND BELIEVING IT sometime, that these things not be "hidden from" you.

What multitude of nations did the descendants of Ephraim become?

HINT:

(Ezk 37:16) Moreover, thou son of man, take thee one stick, and write upon it, For Judah, and for the children of Israel his companions: then take another stick, and write upon it, For Joseph, the stick of Ephraim, and for all the house of Israel his companions:
 

Danoh

New member
The NC wasn't "offered". It was implemented with the shed blood of Christ Jesus.

Just go on record, and tell us whether or not you believe the NC was put in place at the cross?

If yes, is it it still in place.

If no, then you are caught in a "gotcha" because you just said Paul didn't acknowledge a two house distinction anymore.

If "yes-then no it is not still in place", you're going to have a hard time showing with scripture where the NC was withdrawn after being made.

See Danoh, when you try to defend Dispensationalism you can't, because the truth always prevails, and Dispensationalism is one of the furthest things from the truth.

I don't expect you to try and explain your way out of the hole you just dug yourself in, I expect a post from you with no scripture that goes on and on about the books I allegedly read.

One cannot very well offer a thing not already in place, can they - Acts 2:4; Acts 2:39.

This is what JohnW means when he rerfers to you as a child of the devil. That is what a devil is, one who would have another stumble.

Why do you need to prove you are right? You are not the issue; you spiritual fool.

Try simply attempting to explore differences in understanding.

A refusal to do that only ends up in hypocrisy, no matter who the culprit is.

If nothing else, you really need to bear that in mind.
 

tetelestai

LIFETIME MEMBER
LIFETIME MEMBER
Its talking about all sorts of physical sons of Jacob - they ended up in Spain - Spanish Jews. Russian Jews, Polish Jews, Cuban Jews - you name it - that Book STANDS ALONE!

Ephraim's descendants were NOT Jews !!!!!

Ephraim went to war against the Jews !!!!

Why is this so hard for you Darby Followers to understand?
 

tetelestai

LIFETIME MEMBER
LIFETIME MEMBER
If nothing else, you really need to bear that in mind.

C'mon Danoh, you can do it.

Just tell us about the NC?

Was it put in place?

Was it withdrawn after being put in place?

Is it in place today?

Don't be scared of Little Johnny W, STP, Wrong Divider, mysteryboy, heir, Nick M, and all your other fellow MADists.

Just tell us Danoh?
 

Danoh

New member
That's not what Gen 48:19 says

(Gen 48:19 KJV) And his father refused, and said, I know it, my son, I know it: he also shall become a people, and he also shall be great: but truly his younger brother shall be greater than he, and his seed shall become a multitude of nations.

Jacob tells Joseph that Ephraim's seed would become a multitude of nations.

Jacob doesn't tell him that Ephraim's seed would live amongst other nations.

Try again.



You can't be serious.

The stick of Ephraim was joined with the stick of Judah at the cross. There was no such thing as Russia, Poland, or Cuba before the cross,

Also, there was there no such thing as a "JEW" when Jacob, Joseph, Ephraim, and Manasseh were in that room together.



What multitude of nations did the descendants of Ephraim become?

HINT:

(Ezk 37:16) Moreover, thou son of man, take thee one stick, and write upon it, For Judah, and for the children of Israel his companions: then take another stick, and write upon it, For Joseph, the stick of Ephraim, and for all the house of Israel his companions:

No, Israel "would not have this man to reign over us" Luke 19:14.

To - this - very - day...
 

tetelestai

LIFETIME MEMBER
LIFETIME MEMBER
No, Israel "would not have this man to reign over us" Luke 19:14.

Read the next verse:

(Luke 19:15) “He was made king, however, and returned home. ...


And, it wasn't Israel. It was the Jews and Judah.

To - this - very - day...

Is Christ Jesus Lord of lords and King of kings today?
 

tetelestai

LIFETIME MEMBER
LIFETIME MEMBER
This is what JohnW means when he rerfers to you as a child of the devil. That is what a devil is, one who would have another stumble.

Showing someone the errors of Dispensationalism doesn't make them stumble.

It shows them the false teachings they unfortunately believe in.
 
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