Limited Atonement Means Limited Faith

fishrovmen

Active member
So I can assume you don't know what you meant when you posted it?
Why the all the deflection?

Why all the questions? If you want answers, go to the source. I'm not going to waste time copying and pasting stuff that's easily available
 

Robert Pate

Well-known member
Banned
Why all the questions? If you want answers, go to the source. I'm not going to waste time copying and pasting stuff that's easily available

"Blessed is the man to whom the Lord will not impute sin" Romans 4:8.

The imputation of sin or righteousness is a real biblical doctrine. God can and will impute sin to unbelievers. Just as he can and will impute righteousness to believers.
 

Brother Ducky

New member
"Blessed is the man to whom the Lord will not impute sin" Romans 4:8.

The imputation of sin or righteousness is a real biblical doctrine. God can and will impute sin to unbelievers. Just as he can and will impute righteousness to believers.

But where is the teaching about the imputing back of sin/s to one who is "in Christ?"
 

Dialogos

Well-known member
Robert,

I asked a very simple question. It was:
me said:
Robert, given your definition of world, presumably meaning everyone who has ever or will ever live, did Jesus fail at saving the world?
Your quite involved response, or lack of response, was the following:
RP said:
Jesus has victorously defeated sin death and the devil.


"And having spoiled principalities and powers, he made a show of them openly, triumphing over them in it"Colossians 2:15.

As far as God is concerned sin, death and the devil have been abolished and Jesus is Lord, Revelation 19:16.

God now sees ALL THINGS in his Son Jesus Christ, Hebrews 1:3.

It is only because Jesus has defeated sin, death and the devil that now... "Whosoever that shall call on the name of the Lord shall be saved" Romans 10:13.

Salvation has been provided for all by the doing and the dying of Jesus.
First, yes, of course Jesus has defeated sin, death and the devil. That does not mean that everyone in the world, without exception has been or will be saved. In fact, it means the apposite. Read the book of Revelation, those that walk in the way of sin, death and the devil take a dip in the same lake as unrepentant sinners, the spiritually dead and the devil precisely because Jesus wins.

However, that’s not an answer to my question.

Did Jesus fail to save the world as you define "world"?

Second, Hebrews 1:3 does not say that God sees all things in His Son. Here is Hebrews 1:3, it doesn’t say anything remotely close to what you are asserting here.
Long ago, at many times and in many ways, God spoke to our fathers by the prophets, but in these last days he has spoken to us by his Son, whom he appointed the heir of all things, through whom also he created the world. He is the radiance of the glory of God and the exact imprint of his nature, and he upholds the universe by the word of his power. After making purification for sins, he sat down at the right hand of the Majesty on high, (Hebrews 1:1-3 ESV)​
Does this say that everyone is in Christ and God sees them all in Christ?

:nono:

Learn to read contextually, Robert.

Jesus is appointed the heir of all things. What does that mean? Pretty clearly that means that because the Father created all things through Jesus, The Son inherited everything from the Father, making Jesus the Lord of all creation and the Sustainer of all creation.
This does not mean that everyone is saved.

The lost man “lives and moves and has his being…(Acts 17:28) through Christ’s sustaining power but that doesn’t make him saved.
In fact, your last statement actually betrays your true answer to my question.
RP said:
Salvation has been provided for all by the doing and the dying of Jesus.
When it comes down to it, in your view, Jesus didn’t save anybody let alone save everybody. According to your theological construct Jesus can only provide the chance for people to be saved. In essence, Jesus makes mankind savable, but everyone has to save themselves.

Here’s my next question.

Robert, if you believe that Jesus died to give everyone an equal chance to be saved, why have there been so many people who have never had the chance to hear the gospel and believe?
 

Dialogos

Well-known member
"Blessed is the man to whom the Lord will not impute sin" Romans 4:8.

The imputation of sin or righteousness is a real biblical doctrine. God can and will impute sin to unbelievers. Just as he can and will impute righteousness to believers.
A lot of your confusion can be cleared up by defining λογιζομαι. It means to recon, consider, ponder or dwell on.

Romans 4:8 does not say that God imputes back the sins of those who have had their sins previously expiated, it means that there are some whose sins the Lord won't count, dwell on, ponder, etc...

Incidentally, those are the ones who have their sins propitiated, while those who don't remain in their sins.

Simple really, no need for crazy doctrines that turn the bible on its head.
 

Robert Pate

Well-known member
Banned
A lot of your confusion can be cleared up by defining λογιζομαι. It means to recon, consider, ponder or dwell on.

Romans 4:8 does not say that God imputes back the sins of those who have had their sins previously expiated, it means that there are some whose sins the Lord won't count, dwell on, ponder, etc...

Incidentally, those are the ones who have their sins propitiated, while those who don't remain in their sins.

Simple really, no need for crazy doctrines that turn the bible on its head.



In the judgment if you are not found to be "In Christ" your sins will be imputed back to you and you will be condemned to hell.

"Blessed is the man to whom the Lord will not impute sin" Romans 4:8.

Not a crazy doctrine. God can and will impute sin and righteousness in the judgment.
 

beloved57

Well-known member
In the judgment if you are not found to be "In Christ" your sins will be imputed back to you and you will be condemned to hell.

"Blessed is the man to whom the Lord will not impute sin" Romans 4:8.

Not a crazy doctrine. God can and will impute sin and righteousness in the judgment.

As of now, you are found to be in unbelief of the Gospel!
 

beloved57

Well-known member
Your Satanic TULIP Gospel that insults the Lordship of Christ, will find its place in hell right along with all that embrace it

TULIP is the Gospel of Gods Grace in Christ and you reject it! That makes you a unbeliever, no matter how religious and zealous you are!
 

Robert Pate

Well-known member
Banned
TULIP is the Gospel of Gods Grace in Christ and you reject it! That makes you a unbeliever, no matter how religious and zealous you are!


The "L" in TULIP means that Jesus is not Lord.

You will never see heaven if you believe that Jesus only made a limited atonement.
 

StanJ

New member
Why all the questions? If you want answers, go to the source. I'm not going to waste time copying and pasting stuff that's easily available


You made the comment in YOUR post. What you should have done, IF you could, was to quote what you say he said, which IMO is not true and thus makes you a prevaricator. Regardless the word is NOT supported in the NT.
 

fishrovmen

Active member
You made the comment in YOUR post. What you should have done, IF you could, was to quote what you say he said, which IMO is not true and thus makes you a prevaricator. Regardless the word is NOT supported in the NT.

Sorry, I was responding to Robert when I used that word and he understood EXACTLY what I meant and that's all that matters. If you are too lazy to scroll back to posts #103 and #107 to see the proof, and would rather call a brother a prevaricator, that's your problem.
 

StanJ

New member
Sorry, I was responding to Robert when I used that word and he understood EXACTLY what I meant and that's all that matters. If you are too lazy to scroll back to posts #103 and #107 to see the proof, and would rather call a brother a prevaricator, that's your problem.

The only lazy I see if your laziness in not being willing or able to explain what you post. Typical of equivocators.
 

fishrovmen

Active member
The only lazy I see if your laziness in not being willing or able to explain what you post. Typical of equivocators.

If you are going to use words like "equivocator", it would help if you know what it means. I had just told you in the previous post that I was responding to Robert Pate, no one else! and he knew EXACTLY what I was talking about. He was not unclear or uncertain what I was talking about in any way.
Therefore, no "equivocation" whatsoever.
BTW, I had started a thread on June 13 that deals with his imputation theory (The Imputation of Sins in the Judgment), trying to understand it myself, and I never got a "clear" answer from him.
 
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beloved57

Well-known member
If you are going to use words like "equivocator", it would help if you know what it means. I had just told you in the previous post that I was responding to Robert Pate, no one else! and he knew EXACTLY what I was talking about. He was not unclear or uncertain what I was talking about in any way.
Therefore, no "equivocation" whatsoever.
BTW, I had started a thread on June 13 that deals with his imputation theory (The Imputation of Sins in the Judgment), trying to understand it myself, and I never got a "clear" answer from him.

That is all it is but a ungodly theory! Pate is teaching that sins charged or imputed to Christ already, can be again imputed back to the sinners Christ died for when they were imputed to Him! It's a lie and makes God unjust!
 
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