Theology Club: Is MAD doctrine correct?

heir

heir

TOL Subscriber
Nang said:
It is worse than that . . . they use their scriptural fetish as an excuse to avoid study Christianity as a whole, including the wonderful riches of the original languages from which all good bibles were composed.
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That is what Nang calls it when people believe Psalms 12:6-7 KJV

Their view is spiritually ignorant, and intellectually lazy.
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You shouldn't talk about yourself that way.

They possess no hunger nor thirst to learn more of the word of God and its revelation of righteousness.
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We study 2 Timothy 2:15 KJV

They are content to pretend being big fish in non-church, dark-water, Waffle House-ponds, rather than actually joining the historical Christian ocean of spiritual community and sharing in the marvelous light of knowledge of Jesus Christ amongst His enlightened brethren.
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Of course you are referring to the religious, denominational system you are stuck in. No thanks. I'll pass 2 Timothy 2:19 KJV
 
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godrulz

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heir said:
That is what Nang calls it when people believe Psalms 12:6-7 KJV

You shouldn't talk about yourself that way.

We study 2 Timothy 2:15 KJV

Of course you are referring to the religious, denominational system you are stuck in. No thanks. I'll pass 2 Timothy 2:19 KJV
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Ps. 12 is proof texted out of context by KJVO. It has nothing to do with KJVO.

If it does, then any version could claim it by the same illogical begging the question/circular reasoning.
 
heir

heir

TOL Subscriber
godrulz said:
Ps. 12 is proof texted out of context by KJVO. It has nothing to do with KJVO.

If it does, then any version could claim it by the same illogical begging the question/circular reasoning.
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You don't believe we have it even though you were caught saying you did. The evidence is in this very thread. You can't make up your mind and talk out of both sides of your mouth.

James 1:8 KJV
 
Nang

Nang

TOL Subscriber
Heir thinks she can invent doctrine to her own liking, and prove it by simply copying and pasting scripture quotes, whether they are relevant to her personal ideas and claims, or not.

Example: "I am saved." John 3:16

That is her simplistic MO.

One of these days she will realize (hopefully not too late), that faith is not quoting select verses, from a select bible, but by actually believing and living according to every word spoken by God.
 
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godrulz

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heir said:
You don't believe we have it even though you were caught saying you did. The evidence is in this very thread. You can't make up your mind and talk out of both sides of your mouth.

James 1:8 KJV
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I have given you a reasoned, biblical, balanced view. All you do is beg the question with wrong assumptions that lead to wrong conclusions. Your arguments are lame.
 
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godrulz

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Nang said:
Heir thinks she can invent doctrine to her own liking, and prove it by simply copying and pasting scripture quotes, whether they are relevant to her personal ideas and claims, or not.

Example: "I am saved." John 3:16

That is her simplistic MO.

One of these days she will realize (hopefully not too late), that faith is not quoting select verses, from a select bible, but by actually believing and living according to every word spoken by God.
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Jn. 3:16 is true and virtually the same in all versions. KJVO would probably whine about a letter difference as if that changes the meaning?!
 
Bright Raven

Bright Raven

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godrulz said:
Jn. 3:16 is true and virtually the same in all versions. KJVO would probably whine about a letter difference as if that changes the meaning?!
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I think they have a good case for deletions and changes made by other translations. ie:

John 1:18 King James Version (KJV)

18 No man hath seen God at any time, the only begotten Son, which is in the bosom of the Father, he hath declared him.

John 1:18 New International Version (NIV)

18 No one has ever seen God, but the one and only Son, who is himself God and is in closest relationship with the Father, has made him known.
 
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godrulz

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Bright Raven said:
I think they have a good case for deletions and changes made by other translations. ie:

John 1:18 King James Version (KJV)

18 No man hath seen God at any time, the only begotten Son, which is in the bosom of the Father, he hath declared him.

John 1:18 New International Version (NIV)

18 No one has ever seen God, but the one and only Son, who is himself God and is in closest relationship with the Father, has made him known.
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KJVO stupidly claims a conspiracy in modern versions to remove the Deity of Christ (despite the translators being evangelical trinitarians?!). Jn. 1:18 is one of several e.g. where non-KJV is stronger on the Deity of Christ.

KJVO is a fallacious heresy.
 
Bright Raven

Bright Raven

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godrulz said:
KJVO stupidly claims a conspiracy in modern versions to remove the Deity of Christ (despite the translators being evangelical trinitarians?!). Jn. 1:18 is one of several e.g. where non-KJV is stronger on the Deity of Christ.

KJVO is a fallacious heresy.
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Yes, It flat says that He is God.
 
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godrulz

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Right Divider said:
What is wrong with the KJV rendering of Gal. 2:7?
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It is possible, but the nuanced, complex genitive does not lead to MAD interpretations. It is a demarcation of ministry, not two true post-cross gospel messages. The problem is the proof texting of MAD more than the translation. However, compare other versions and check grammarians and commentaries.....to is closer to the truth than of here.

I can live with of since the gospel of the Americans is the same gospel as the gospel of the Canadians and Africans. Different ministries reach different people groups, but it is the same gospel.
 
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