Humans were designed to have human nature innately. It's not possible to keep the law without the Holy Spirit to overcome human nature.
Jesus had the Holy Spirit and so he was able to keep the law.
ECT Gospel of Grace
- Thread starter jamie
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Humans were designed to have human nature innately. It's not possible to keep the law without the Holy Spirit to overcome human nature.
Jesus had the Holy Spirit and so he was able to keep the law.
Peter preached God's grace long before Jesus invited Paul to become a Christian.
Jerry Shugart
Well-known member
"For when the Gentiles, which have not the law, do by nature the things contained in the law, these, having not the law, are a law unto themselves" (Ro.2:14).
And if the lawyer did not have the ability to keep the law then it is impossible that the Lord would have told him that if he did keep it then he would live:
"And, behold, a certain lawyer stood up, and tempted him, saying, Master, what shall I do to inherit eternal life? He said unto him, What is written in the law? how readest thou? And he answering said, Thou shalt love the Lord thy God with all thy heart, and with all thy soul, and with all thy strength, and with all thy mind; and thy neighbour as thyself. And he said unto him, Thou hast answered right: this do, and thou shalt live" (Lk.10:25-28).
Man has the ability to keep the law perfectly, as witnessed by the fact that the Man Jesus Christ did that very thing. But all other men do not have the "will" to keep it perfectly. Sooner or later all men, with the exception of the Lord Jesus, go their own way instead of God's way.
Please quote Peter doing that before Paul.
Thanks!
Jesus had the Holy Spirit from birth. It's the Holy Spirit that provides the power to overcome temptation to sin. We can't do it without our Helper.
Peter said, "Repent and let every one of you be baptized in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of sins and you shall receive the gift of the Holy Spirit." (Acts 2:38)
The gift of the Spirit according to Paul is eternal life through Jesus Christ. (Romans 6:23)
Many on TOL know the scriptures. Anytime you have a question please feel free to ask and I will explain.
Jerry Shugart
Well-known member
I do not think that you are understanding Galatians 3:28 correctly. Donald K. Campbell writes that "believers are all one in Christ Jesus. Since all believers become one with each other, human distinctions lose their signifiance. None is spirirually superior over another, that is,a believing Jew is not more privileged before God than a believing Gentile" (The Bible Knowledge Commentary; New Testament, edited by John F. Walvoord and Roy B. Zuck (Colorado Springs: ChariotVictor Publishing), p.600).
Besides that, here Peter speaks of the Gentiles who made up the local churches:
"Who have for my life laid down their own necks: unto whom not only I give thanks, but also all the churches of the Gentiles" (Ro.16:4).
Paul did not think that the Gentiles lost their identity as being "Gentiles."
How do you explain that?
beloved57
Well-known member
js
False comment. Adam didnt even have the ability to do that ! The standard of the Law has been summed up by Jesus, Matt 22:36-40
[FONT="] Master, which is the great commandment in the law?[/FONT]
[FONT="]37Jesus said unto him, Thou shalt love the Lord thy God with all thy heart, and with all thy soul, and with all thy mind.[/FONT]
[FONT="]38 This is the first and great commandment.[/FONT]
[FONT="]39 And the second is like unto it, Thou shalt love thy neighbour as thyself.[/FONT]
[FONT="]40 On these two commandments hang all the law and the prophets.
Adam couldnt do it, because he was weak in the flesh Rom 8:3
For what the law could not do, in that it was weak through the flesh, God sending his own Son in the likeness of sinful flesh, and for sin, condemned sin in the flesh:
Adam, and man in Adam, in his best estate, was only flesh. He could not keep it to Gods satisfaction, the temptation proved it ![/FONT]
False comment. Adam didnt even have the ability to do that ! The standard of the Law has been summed up by Jesus, Matt 22:36-40
[FONT="] Master, which is the great commandment in the law?[/FONT]
[FONT="]37Jesus said unto him, Thou shalt love the Lord thy God with all thy heart, and with all thy soul, and with all thy mind.[/FONT]
[FONT="]38 This is the first and great commandment.[/FONT]
[FONT="]39 And the second is like unto it, Thou shalt love thy neighbour as thyself.[/FONT]
[FONT="]40 On these two commandments hang all the law and the prophets.
Adam couldnt do it, because he was weak in the flesh Rom 8:3
For what the law could not do, in that it was weak through the flesh, God sending his own Son in the likeness of sinful flesh, and for sin, condemned sin in the flesh:
Adam, and man in Adam, in his best estate, was only flesh. He could not keep it to Gods satisfaction, the temptation proved it ![/FONT]
Jerry Shugart
Well-known member
Here Paul is speaking about the judgment of God in regard to a man's "works" or "deeds" only:
"...the righteous judgment of God; Who will render to every man according to his deeds: To them who by patient continuance in well doing seek for glory and honour and immortality, eternal life: But unto them that are contentious, and do not obey the truth, but obey unrighteousness, indignation and wrath, Tribulation and anguish, upon every soul of man that doeth evil, of the Jew first, and also of the Gentile; But glory, honour, and peace, to every man that worketh good, to the Jew first, and also to the Gentile: 11. For there is no respect of persons with God" (Ro.2:5-11).
So according to Paul, at least in theory, a man can inherit eternal life based on nothing but his "deeds" or "works."
Your argument is with Paul, not me.
Jerry Shugart
Well-known member
Here is the heart and soul of the "gospel of grace" and Peter never preached that prior to Paul:
"But now the righteousness of God without the law is made known, being witnessed by the law and the prophets; Even the righteousness of God which is by the faithfulness of Jesus Christ unto all and upon all them that believe: for there is no difference: For all have sinned, and come short of the glory of God; Being justified freely by his grace through the redemption that is in Christ Jesus" (Ro.3:21-24).
Hi and just goes to show that many of the so-called writers of time past , are not in the LOOP of what Paul meant in Gal 3:28 !!
Let me EXPLAIN it to you !!
There are 4 verbs , ALL in the PRESENT TENSE and in the Indicative Mood oa FACT that what Paul wrote is right on and that my ANALYZE is correct !!
It starts like this There CANNOT BE ( and the KJV uses there NEITHER IS and both can be used )
The PRESENT TENSE SAYS that in the DISPENSATION of thr Grace of God there CANNOT BE Jew nor Greek , there CANNOT BE / ENI , Slve nor FREE , there CANNOT BE / ENI , Male nor Female fpr you ARE / ESTE all one in Christ Jesus !!
Paul is talking to the B O C ant to any on else !!
#1 , The words NEITHER IS /ENI says it all !!
#2 , The last verb ARE / ESTE means we are CONTINUALLY in Christ or OSAS !
#3 , Paul is the ONLY one that uses this Phrase " in Christ " some 49 times in a practical application and some uses " in Christ " some 62 times to express an Doctrine position !!
#4 Also explain Col 3:11 !!
#5 Or explain Eph 2:15 !!
#6 The B O C is a new MAN and NOT part Jew and then part Gentile or part Slave or part FREE or part male or part Female , sorry !!
dan p
Jerry Shugart
Well-known member
First explain what Paul said here:
"Who have for my life laid down their own necks: unto whom not only I give thanks, but also all the churches of the Gentiles" (Ro.16:4).
If there are no Gentiles in these churches which he mentions then why does he refer to those churches as "the churches of the Gentiles"?
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Hi and you first since you do not understand Gal 3:29 NOR will comment on that verse because you can not !!
I am locking up the shop and probably will not response until Monday !!
What is so important with Rom 16:4 as it has nothing to do with Gal 3:28 ??
Gal 3:28 SLOVES so many other questions that you have no KNOWLEDGE and here is just one example , it SOLVES the question are the 12 IN or OUT of the B O C , do you see the answer in Gal 3:28 . I doubt IT !!
Trying to AVOID COMMENT and you are not FOOLING me !!
dan p
Jerry Shugart
Well-known member
It refutes you ideas about the meaning of Galatians 3:28:
"Who have for my life laid down their own necks: unto whom not only I give thanks, but also all the churches of the Gentiles" (Ro.16:4).
If there are no Gentiles in these churches which he mentions then why does he refer to those churches as "the churches of the Gentiles"?
Oh yeah, Acts 2:38. There you go.
Paul is referring to congregations in Gentile cities such as Antioch in Syria as opposed to the congregation in Jerusalem.
Hi Jamie and Acts 2:38 says Shall Receive is in the Future tense ,so until you refuse to believe that you are Lost ,. Dan p
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1Mind1Spirit
Literal lunatic
Only partially futuristic.
They received the Holy Spirit immediately.
1 Corinthians 12:3
Wherefore I give you to understand, that no man speaking by the Spirit of God calleth Jesus accursed: and that no man can say that Jesus is the Lord, but by the Holy Ghost.
However nobody gets to bypass what Jesus said here....
Luke 11:13
If ye then, being evil, know how to give good gifts unto your children: how much more shall your heavenly Father give the Holy Spirit to them that ask him?