EVE AND THE SERPENT

jamie

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Actually, God divorced Israel and gave her a certificate of divorce (see Lamentations and Jeremiah).

So that kind of blows your "Jesus was free to marry another" theory.

Were the Jews part of Israel?

Were there Jews in Jesus' day?

"Therefore, my brethren, you also have become dead to the law through the body of Christ, that you may be married to another—to Him who was raised from the dead" (Romans 7:4)

Was Paul speaking to Jews?

All Californians are Americans, but not all Americans are Californians.
 

JudgeRightly

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Were the Jews part of Israel?

Yes. The Jews ARE Israel.

Were there Jews in Jesus' day?

Yes.

"Therefore, my brethren, you also have become dead to the law through the body of Christ, that you may be married to another—to Him who was raised from the dead" (Romans 7:4)

Was Paul speaking to Jews?

No.
Edit: unless you include the Jews who converted to Christianity... At least not specifically...

Otherwise no.

All Californians are Americans, but not all Americans are Californians.

Correct, though, I'm not sure how that's relevant.
 
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jamie

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No.
Edit: unless you include the Jews who converted to Christianity... At least not specifically...

Otherwise no.

Paul's teaching was to convert Jews to Christ.

"Or do you not know, brethren (for I speak to those who know the law), that the law has dominion over a man as long as he lives?" (Romans 7:1)

Paul's comment was made with regard to Mosaic law.
 

JudgeRightly

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Jews are small part of Israel, but not all Israel are Jews.
If one is a Jew, then they are automatically part of Israel, God's people, not necessarily the "nation" (the political entity) of Israel.
 

JudgeRightly

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Paul's teaching was to convert Jews to Christ.

Originally yes, but after Galatians 2:7-9, He went only to the Gentiles, and the Apostles to the Jews only.

"Or do you not know, brethren (for I speak to those who know the law), that the law has dominion over a man as long as he lives?" (Romans 7:1)

Paul's comment was made with regard to Mosaic law.

Actually, not necessarily the Mosaic law.

The "Law' is for the unrighteous.

But we know that the law is good if one uses it lawfully,knowing this: that the law is not made for a righteous person, but for the lawless and insubordinate, for the ungodly and for sinners, for the unholy and profane, for murderers of fathers and murderers of mothers, for manslayers,for fornicators, for sodomites, for kidnappers, for liars, for perjurers, and if there is any other thing that is contrary to sound doctrine,according to the glorious gospel of the blessed God which was committed to my trust. - 1 Timothy 1:8-11 http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=1Timothy1:8-11&version=NKJV

The Mosaic Law is just an implementation of the law that God wrote on our hearts. (Romans 2:15)
 

JudgeRightly

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Where are the nations of Israel?
There is one physical (ie land with borders) nation of Israel, and that's over in the Middle East, on the Coast of the Mediterranean.

The Nation (ie people) of Israel are the Jews, either in the physical nation, or those who have been scattered abroad (diaspora, aka dispersion), but they are still one nation, Israel.
 

jamie

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Originally yes, but after Galatians 2:7-9, He went only to the Gentiles, and the Apostles to the Jews only.

Really?

"And it came to pass after three days that Paul called the leaders of the Jews together. So when they had come together, he said to them: 'Men and brethren, though I have done nothing against our people or the customs of our fathers, yet I was delivered as a prisoner from Jerusalem into the hands of the Romans'" (Acts 28:17)
 

JudgeRightly

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Really?

"And it came to pass after three days that Paul called the leaders of the Jews together. So when they had come together, he said to them: 'Men and brethren, though I have done nothing against our people or the customs of our fathers, yet I was delivered as a prisoner from Jerusalem into the hands of the Romans'" (Acts 28:17)

But on the contrary, when they saw that the gospel for the uncircumcised had been committed to me, as the gospel for the circumcised was to Peter (for He who worked effectively in Peter for the apostleship to the circumcised also worked effectively in me toward the Gentiles), and when James, Cephas, and John, who seemed to be pillars, perceived the grace that had been given to me, they gave me and Barnabas the right hand of fellowship, that we should go to the Gentiles and they to the circumcised. - Galatians 2:7-9 http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Galatians2:7-9&version=NKJV

By the time of Acts 28, Paul had already written Galatians, and that was 6 years after the events of Galatians 2. Acts 28 occurred 14 years after Galatians 2.

You should go look at a timeline of Acts and the other events in the Bible.
 

patrick jane

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But on the contrary, when they saw that the gospel for the uncircumcised had been committed to me, as the gospel for the circumcised was to Peter (for He who worked effectively in Peter for the apostleship to the circumcised also worked effectively in me toward the Gentiles), and when James, Cephas, and John, who seemed to be pillars, perceived the grace that had been given to me, they gave me and Barnabas the right hand of fellowship, that we should go to the Gentiles and they to the circumcised. - Galatians 2:7-9 http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Galatians2:7-9&version=NKJV

By the time of Acts 28, Paul had already written Galatians, and that was 6 years after the events of Galatians 2. Acts 28 occurred 14 years after Galatians 2.

You should go look at a timeline of Acts and the other events in the Bible.
Yep. Galatians is likely the first book written in the NT, it was written in 49 AD
 

Epoisses

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The book of Romans was written to believing Jews and believing Gentiles who all belonged to the church!

Dispensationalists are willfully ignorant and purposely twist the scriptures to fit their twisted views.

The book of Galatians was written to Gentiles and Hellenistic Jews who had been corrupted by the Judaizers.
 

patrick jane

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The book of Romans was written to believing Jews and believing Gentiles who all belonged to the church!

Dispensationalists are willfully ignorant and purposely twist the scriptures to fit their twisted views.

The book of Galatians was written to Gentiles and Hellenistic Jews who had been corrupted by the Judaizers.
You are unwillfully ignorant; you can't help it
 

JudgeRightly

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There is no Jew and Gentile anymore. All people on earth are so mixed up there are no pure races anymore so your whole understanding falls like a house of cards.

There is no Jew or Gentile.... IN THE BODY OF CHRIST! Outside of the body of Christ is another matter entirely.
 

Epoisses

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There is no Jew or Gentile.... IN THE BODY OF CHRIST! Outside of the body of Christ is another matter entirely.

My wife's side of the family is Jewish and her grandfather was a Rabbi. She had her DNA checked just for giggles and guess how much Jewish DNA she had?
 

Epoisses

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She had 5% Jewish DNA. My hopes and dreams of using her as a scapegoat to immigrate to the holy land were dashed to pieces on the rocks of reality.
 
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