Already have read nearly all of them.
One resolution? How many "possible" resolutions are there?
What a moron.
William, just exegete the verse for us. Tell us what you beileive, or use someone else's commentary, I don't care. Just exegete this one verse as you understand it.
You really look silly when you call John a liar, and then not explain why you think he is.
Did they have a consensus? Are those who differed from you going to hell over this issue?
The Greek present, continuous tense would show that a believer who walks in the light cannot continually, habitually sin. It does not mean that they literally cannot have one wrong thought, motive, word, action. We do not need your imputation theory to get around this. Just don't take it as a wooden literalism proof text in English based on a prooftext without consideration to the inspired Greek grammar that comes out in the NIV (cannot continually sin), but not the KJV (cannot sin). They would be no different than the unbelievers who do the same and are going to hell (I Cor. 6:9-11). Since believers can lie, steal, lust, the Corinthian passage is not saying they go to hell for these things. A godless sinner is not the same as one who is in Christ. An isolated lapse that is dealt with is not the same as someone given over to sin to the point they are not walking in Spirit, light, Christ.
Others suggest (LH) that a believer's spirit cannot sin, but their flesh can sin. This is based on a specific view of sin and the body. I don't think we can dissect a person like this and that the will and mind are involved in sin and that it is not a substance. So, our views on harmartiology, soteriology, and anthropology will bias our interpretation of this problem text that believers puzzle over. There is only one right interpretation and I believe mine is consistent with other verses rather than a KJV only English proof text out of context (wooden literalism)...STP's M.O.
