ARCHIVE: Open Theism part 2

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Lon

Well-known member
Amazing to you that I reject the core teachings that were propogated in my Bible school and by my early mentors as it relates to God? One thing my teachers encouraged me to do is to learn to think for myself and to investigate Scripture for myself. I am so glad that they at least did that, even if a lot of my teachers in the past were from Calvinist/Armenian backgrounds.

Omnipresence means literally ALL present. Is God all-present or is He not all-present, meaning present in all places at once? That is what omnipresence actually means, and it is a pagan Greek concept, and not a Bible concept. In fact the Bible is FULL of examples of places that God was NOT!

God is everywhere He wants to be whenever He wants to be there because God is free. He doesn't HAVE to be an unwilling witness to every single wicked rape and murder that occurs if He doesn't want to! The doctrine of omnipresence takes away the very freedom of God and says that for God to be God He MUST be in all places at once. This is exactly what was taught to me in my theology classes, and they are doctrines that I now reject, because I believe they are not how God presents Himself in the Bible.

Genesis 18:20-21

And the LORD said, “Because the outcry against Sodom and Gomorrah is great, and because their sin is very grave, 21 I will go down now and see whether they have done altogether according to the outcry against it that has come to Me; and if not, I will know.”

These verses destroy omnipresence and omniscience by themselves!

We do not deny that God knows everything knowable that He chooses to know, nor do we deny that God is everywhere He wants to be whenver He wants to be there.

We affirm the Scriptures which teach us that our God is a free God, and He is capable of BEING and DOING and THINKING whatever He wants!

Case closed.

This one isn't bad. A bit vague, but it does have some meaningful clarifiers: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Ubiquitous

This one is a bit better: http://plato.stanford.edu/entries/omnipresence/

And a few verses to ponder here: http://www.theopedia.com/Omnipresence_of_God
 

Nang

TOL Subscriber
YES or NO..... was there ever a point in time when God designed (in His mind) how a flower would be constructed and how it would function?

I will answer the question so to prove that it is a fair "yes or no" question.

MY ANSWER: YES.
At some point in the past God designed the flower (it's construction) and how it would function. God made a blueprint (so to speak) in His mind for the flower and when He decided to create, He spoke that blueprint into existence.

O.K.

I grant you ask a fair question, according to your frame of reference.

But what is your frame of reference?

How do you know God had to engineer and design each and every flower He created?

What is the basis for your saying this is so?

Nang
 

Ktoyou

Well-known member
Hall of Fame
Lon, you might have said

This is like asking if I am free to choose to breathe. I can hold my breath, but it doesn't come naturally. Whatever God knows is a part of Him.

You know our stance on omniscience, so what is it you want to know besides that?

Is it a logic dilemma? OV says God knows all, he only sees it, as far in logic is able to grasp. I do not fault OV for the logic, it is just that I perceive him missing pertinent scriptures and that God has characteristics, which are infinite, beyond our capacity to grasp.

Is that what you meant to say?
 

Lon

Well-known member
Can you give me an example of something you believe to be "uncreated"?

Now we are starting to step away from the time/timeless direction, which is harder to traverse.

If by 'uncreated' it is meant 'our future' is the question.

I find it hard to discuss timelessness without using time related questions. But I appreciate that you guys at least are able to see some points for discussion. I'm not sure how we can discuss them when one is locked into the one premise and sees the other as fiction, while the other sees them as trinkets of revelation that offer a peek into eternity. The only thing I'm able to do is come up with more constrained analogy, or quote again those scriptures and raise again His transcendence for consideration.
 

Nathon Detroit

LIFETIME MEMBER
LIFETIME MEMBER
How do you know God had to engineer and design each and every flower He created?
I didn't ask that.

In fact if you read back through our discourse you will see I specifically framed this question prior to the creation of any flower.

I didn't ask if God designed EVERY flower that exists. I do not believe He needed to do that. But He did need to come up with a blueprint for the flower, and a blueprint for all the variations of flowers that exist.

This is an amazingly simple question and it's absolutely mind-boggling that it is so difficult for you to answer.

But lets try ONE more time...

YES or NO..... was there ever a point in time (prior to creation itself) when God designed (in His mind) how a flower would be constructed and how it would function?
 

Nang

TOL Subscriber
I didn't ask that.


It is exactly what you are asking.

In fact if you read back through our discourse you will see I specifically framed this question prior to the creation of any flower.


Right, and all along you have been asking me when God designed the flowers; while insisting God had supposed "blueprints" for the flowers He created.

I didn't ask if God designed EVERY flower that exists. I do not believe He needed to do that. But He did need to come up with a blueprint for the flower, and a blueprint for all the variations of flowers that exist.
This is an amazingly simple question and it's absolutely mind-boggling that it is so difficult for you to answer.

Well, you figure out what you really mean, and then try asking again later, for this is too contradictory and convoluted to be reanswered any more simply than I have.



Nang
 

PKevman

New member
It is exactly what you are asking.




Right, and all along you have been asking me when God designed the flowers; while insisting God had supposed "blueprints" for the flowers He created.



Well, you figure out what you really mean, and then try asking again later, for this is too contradictory and convoluted to be reanswered any more simply than I have.



Nang

:up: And this my friends, is what they call a dodge. Would you like a RAM? :chuckle:
 

PKevman

New member
This one isn't bad. A bit vague, but it does have some meaningful clarifiers: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Ubiquitous

This one is a bit better: http://plato.stanford.edu/entries/omnipresence/

And a few verses to ponder here: http://www.theopedia.com/Omnipresence_of_God


And thus you quote Wikipedia to prove your point. Oh sure they have a few Bible verses sprinkled in, but the theology doesn't come from the Bible. Such as in this totally contradictory statement:

This is not to say that God’s form is spread out so that parts of Him exist in every location. God is spirit; He has no physical form. He is present everywhere in that everything is immediately in His presence. At the same time He is present everywhere in the universe

Contradictory theology like this is what pushes people away from God! First they say God is NOT in every location, then they say He is everywhere in the universe.

Lon, Omni is a Latin term that means "All". Omnipresence means ALL present. That is pantheism whether you realize it or not. You are not willing to admit this because you have been taught as I was taught to NEVER compromise on the omnis. The problem is that the Latin term "Omni" is not found anywhere in the original Scriptures! You say, how do I know that? Because the original Scriptures are written in Greek and Hebrew, NOT Latin.

I hope you will consider this evidence. We are not in the least assaulting the power, might, and glory of God (as SV'ers are taught questioning the Greek philosophical views of God contained in the "omni's and Im's" does).

All things about God must be put into line with the Scriptures. Why? Because God gave us His Word so that we could KNOW and UNDERSTAND Him! How does God reveal Himself in Scripture Lon? Does He reveal Himself as being in all places at all times with no exceptions? That is what OMNI-present means Lon.

It is entirely unBiblical.

God bless!
 

Lighthouse

The Dark Knight
Gold Subscriber
Hall of Fame
Exactly.

We only know how to express things in time constraints.

There is no possible way to discuss a non-beginning from our perception.

We have a truth from God with some description, but no logical grasp of that truth. God is timeless.
And where exactly do we have this truth? Where in the Bible does it say God is timeless?
 

Nang

TOL Subscriber
And thus you quote Wikipedia to prove your point. Oh sure they have a few Bible verses sprinkled in, but the theology doesn't come from the Bible. Such as in this totally contradictory statement:



Contradictory theology like this is what pushes people away from God! First they say God is NOT in every location, then they say He is everywhere in the universe.

Lon, Omni is a Latin term that means "All". Omnipresence means ALL present. That is pantheism whether you realize it or not. You are not willing to admit this because you have been taught as I was taught to NEVER compromise on the omnis. The problem is that the Latin term "Omni" is not found anywhere in the original Scriptures! You say, how do I know that? Because the original Scriptures are written in Greek and Hebrew, NOT Latin.



So where, according to the Holy Scriptures, written in the Greek and Hebrew, does the Word of God say where or when is God not present? From what exactly is God absent?

(Please answer in the original languages, please . . .either Hebrew or Greek, will suffice.)

Nang
 

Clete

Truth Smacker
Silver Subscriber
Huh?

Case is not closed . . .because your argument is essentially contradictory.

Try again . . .

Nang
In what way was his argument contradictory? All he did was quote a passage in Genesis.

Even if it is contradictory, which of course it is not, but let's presume for the sake of argument that it is. Would his position being contradictory prove it false?

Resting in Him,
Clete
 

Clete

Truth Smacker
Silver Subscriber
I find it hard to discuss timelessness without using time related questions. But I appreciate that you guys at least are able to see some points for discussion. I'm not sure how we can discuss them when one is locked into the one premise and sees the other as fiction, while the other sees them as trinkets of revelation that offer a peek into eternity. The only thing I'm able to do is come up with more constrained analogy, or quote again those scriptures and raise again His transcendence for consideration.

Lon,

Did you see THIS post?

There is a reason why you cannot keep from contradicting yourself!
 

PKevman

New member
Nang said:
You are a pastor who positions himself to teach the flock of God, while in admitted rebellion against the core teachings you received in Bible school which your mentors expected you to pass along?

What a joke of a response Nang. As I said we were taught to study Scriptures for ourselves and make up our own minds prayerfully and in the Word. Anything and everything I teach is from the Word. Removing the pagan Greek philosophy from theological teachings is honoring to God and His Word Nang.

I can only ascertain from this confession, that your Bible teachers and mentors attempted to teach you the distinction between pantheism and omnipresence, but you reject that truth, and now spend your time corrupting a congregation with your personal opinions.

How badly wrong you are. We teach and promote the truth from the Word of God, the same as other OV'ers. Calvinism is not TRUTH! It is a lie, and it assaults the character and nature of God.

(I wonder, on what basis, and by what credentials, you consider yourself a pastor . . .when you reject your only teachings?)

By the grace and calling of God I am a pastor. God placed that burden and responsibility with me. I live my life seeking to honor His call on me. I don't consider myself to be any great person. Just a person using his spiritual gifts to edify believers and reach the lost for Jesus Christ. It is all about the Gospel Nang. Jesus Christ died for the sins of mankind. In your mad rush to disprove Open Theism you are forgetting the most important basics. My "Only teachings" were Calvinistic doctrine? Wrong again! I spent years studying and reading books on theology and reading and pouring myself into studying God's Word before I ever stepped foot into a pulpit. It is sad that you would think that accepting Calvinist views are the ONLY possible way to view teaching as successful. Sad indeed Nang!

In our church we have people saved on average every other week. We just had a lady give her heart to Jesus Christ two weeks ago tomorrow. I praise God for this, and we pray all the time for God to bring people our way who need to hear the Word and we pray for people to be saved. This is what our ministry is about. How sad of you to attempt to discredit something you know nothing about just to try to win an argument. Sad and fatal for your own argument!

So you took their advice, and decided to "think for yourself"

Absolutely I did. And I advise my congregation all the time to not take my word for things, but to investigate and study God's Word for themselves. Any good teacher should do the same! (And that is not a pat on my back attempting to say I am a good teacher. I do my best for the Lord and trust Him for the results!)

and rejected credible Christian who were Calvininst/Arminian sources?

I don't reject Christians, even if their theology is bad. I reject the theology if it doesn't line up with Scripture. That doesn't mean I don't have fellowship with them Nang. I have dear brothers and sisters in Christ, and mentors who I disagree with wholeheartedly on some points, but we still have fellowship in Christ!

(I also think it telling and odd, that a pastor in an active pulpit, would mispell Arminian as "Armenian" . . .but that is nit-picky on my part, I admit!)

It's as much of a typo and I get guilty of typing fast as anything else.


Indeed . . .pray tell, where? And refer to Scripture, please.

Already did in the post with the point about Sodom. Want another? How about this, when God the Father turned His back on God the Son, how was that possible if omnipresence is a true Biblical doctrine?

If not, do you deny that Jesus clearly articulated this when He said "My God, My God, why have You forsaken Me"?

The Psalmist further gives us a glimpse of this prophetically by rendering it thus:

1 My God, My God, why have You forsaken Me?
Why are You so far from helping Me,
And from the words of My groaning?


Nang- is the Bible correct? Was God the Father far from the words of the suffering Christ's groaning when He turned His back on God the Son? Or did His omnipresence refute this?

Do you realize you are presenting argument of what you declare is reality, and at the same time denying the basis for what you believe? That is very sad for you . . .

How so? I'd sure like to see you elaborate on this one!

God knew the corrupted state of S&G.

Of course He did! That is why He turned His back on them and limited His presence there. He didn't WANT to know what wickedness was occurring down there. We believe God is FREE to be where He wants to be whenever He wants to be there.

God came down to witness against the corruption of S&G. The question of whether this was reality or not . . .God says "I will know!"

He still makes the clear statement NOW I will go down there, which utterly refutes omnipresence. Utterly refutes it Nang!


Nang said:
Case is not closed . . .because your argument is essentially contradictory.

Case is still closed, and you attempting to open it has further damaged your case. Please elaborate how my argument is contradictory. I am all ears!
 

Lighthouse

The Dark Knight
Gold Subscriber
Hall of Fame
So where, according to the Holy Scriptures, written in the Greek and Hebrew, does the Word of God say where or when is God not present? From what exactly is God absent?

(Please answer in the original languages, please . . .either Hebrew or Greek, will suffice.)

Nang
It tells us God is not in Hell.
 

Clete

Truth Smacker
Silver Subscriber
So where, according to the Holy Scriptures, written in the Greek and Hebrew, does the Word of God say where or when is God not present? From what exactly is God absent?

(Please answer in the original languages, please . . .either Hebrew or Greek, will suffice.)

Nang
From the passage that PK quoted earlier (which you could have looked up yourself, by the way)...


http://www.blueletterbible.org/cgi-bin/c.pl?book=Gen&chapter=18&verse=21&version=KJV#21

Note the first two words "yarad ra'ah"
 

PKevman

New member
PK,

You are not funny. You are a fake. For you have no credible answer to contribute to any of this discussion, do you?

Nang

So much for attempting to shed a little humor on the discussion. You need to seriously lighten up Nang.
 

Nang

TOL Subscriber
In what way was his argument contradictory? All he did was quote a passage in Genesis.


Good question.

The passage was two verses out of Genesis 18:20&21:


"And the Lord said, 'Because the outcry against Sodom and Gomorrah is great, and because their sin is very grave, I will go down now and see whether they have done altogether according to their outcry against it that has come to Me; and if not, I will know."

This denotes a testing from the Lord, as also taught in Deut. 8:2 and 13:3.

It is not a matter of God not knowing what is occurring, but God establishing basis for judgment according to testing accompanied by Godly witness, which is a permeating Scriptural principle found throught the Bible.

God is not arbitrary, but establishes legal witness to validate all His judgments.
 
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