ARCHIVE: Open Theism part 2

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godrulz

Well-known member
Hall of Fame
Jesus never "willed to sin" because of His holy nature, so the debate is pure nonsense.

You confuse metaphysics (being) with morals (choices). Jesus had a will, not a causative, robotic being/nature.

For man, we form a sinful nature as we sin; we do not sin because we have a causative nature.

God choses to act intelligently and unselfishly at all times. He is holy. His character is not divorced from volition. His uncreated attributes like eternality, spirit nature, omnipresence/omniscience/omnipotence are being/metaphysical, not moral.

Our views affect our understanding of the Imago Dei (image of God) also.

Being concepts are philosphical in church history. One should not uncritically beg the question. You may be surprised that some traditional views are more Thomas Aquinas ("On Being and Essence") than Acts, more Augustine/Greek philosophy than pages of Scripture.

http://www.amazon.com/Untamed-God-Philosophical-Exploration-Immutability/dp/083082734X

This book will cause brain damage, but shows how even your classic/traditional theists are rethinking philosophically tainted concepts (he is not an Open Theist, BTW).

Do you like Ostrichs? Do you like sand?
 

lee_merrill

New member
Some issues are not explicitly revealed or resolved in Scripture, so we can use godly reasoning/philosophy/logic to ascertain probable views.
That the future is unknowable is reasoning, and reasonable? I remember someone once inveighing on those who bring their philosophy to bear on Scripture, and read it with tinted lenses. How can we say this, in the light of the verses which say God knows the future, and even future human choices?

Jeremiah 1:5 "Before I formed you in the womb I knew you [not I knew about having a prophet] before you were born I set you apart; I appointed you as a prophet to the nations."

Recall also Cyrus:

Isaiah 44:28 ... who says of Cyrus, 'He is my shepherd and will accomplish all that I please; he will say [note a free choice here] of Jerusalem, "Let it be rebuilt," and of the temple, "Let its foundations be laid."'

Isaiah 45:1 "This is what the Lord says to his anointed, to Cyrus, whose right hand I take hold of to subdue nations before him and to strip kings of their armor, to open doors before him so that gates will not be shut..."

How could God foreknow these choices too?

How could God know there would even be someone named Cyrus who would be king? What if all the kings and queens chose freely to name their boys Nabinidius or Orvacius?

God is able to respond to changing contingencies without having trillions of years to think about what He will do as we pray.
Again, the statement "before they call, I will answer" is not saying God is nimble, nor is this talking about only spoken prayers, where he has time to think of an answer, and where is your view, in the commentaries? Nor is an answer meaning like answering the phone, this--I repeat--has the air of an expedient.

... if God knows I will get killed if I drive today, and warns me not to drive so I am not killed, then His foreknowledge was actually wrong ...
But hypothetical examples where God turns out to be wrong, do not show that God cannot know the future.

Blessings,
Lee
 

Nang

TOL Subscriber
You confuse metaphysics (being) with morals (choices). Jesus had a will, not a causative, robotic being/nature.

You make an unfounded distinction between a being and his morals. They are one and the same.

For man, we form a sinful nature as we sin; we do not sin because we have a causative nature.

Yeah, you say this all the time, but it is not true because it is not biblical. It is simply your personal philosophical opinion.

Scripture teaches that men are born totally depraved and accursed beings, thus they sin accordingly. And not freely, for they can choose to do nothing but sin, due to their sinful natures.

God choses to act intelligently and unselfishly at all times. He is holy. His character is not divorced from volition.

Not the subject. You are throwing out a red herring to derail comments . . .


His uncreated attributes like eternality, spirit nature, omnipresence/omniscience/omnipotence are being/metaphysical, not moral.

Nonsense. Because of God's Holy Being, His attributes are righteous and moral.

Our views affect our understanding of the Imago Dei (image of God) also.

Nope . . .our understanding of being created in the image of God, comes purely by the grace of God revealing the truths of God to our beings . . .such holy revelations working regeneration, conversion, and sanctifaction unto salvation and glory.

Being concepts are philosphical in church history.

The teaching of Imago Dei and subsequent concepts of being, is propositional truth known by man through the revelation of the Holy Scriptures inspired by God.



One should not uncritically beg the question. You may be surprised that some traditional views are more Aquinas than Acts, more Augustine/Greek philosophy than pages of Scripture.

Do you like Ostrichs? Do you like sand?

Bah . . .

Nang
 

lee_merrill

New member
Note that it is now agreed-upon that the account of Jonah is not an instance of God changing his mind, if this is the case, why insist that we must apply the meaning of God changing his mind in other similar accounts?

I think it may be about time to proceed with the eulogy for Open Theism, on all the major points, the discussion has been dropped, the Open Theists have fallen silent, and now we are onto whether foreknowledge causes choices and whether God is in time and so forth (these are about views other than Open Theism).

It seems it may be time now, to proceed with the eulogy for the Open View.

Numbers 23:19 Does he speak and then not act? Does he promise and not fulfill?

No, he does not do this.
 

godrulz

Well-known member
Hall of Fame
Note that it is now agreed-upon that the account of Jonah is not an instance of God changing his mind, if this is the case, why insist that we must apply the meaning of God changing his mind in other similar accounts?

I think it may be about time to proceed with the eulogy for Open Theism.

Genesis 3 is a change of mind as is the story of Hezekiah (unless you say God believes error or spoke a lie). I Samuel 15 also shows how God changes His mind in some cases, but not in others (both examples in the chapter).

God does not change His mind in a capricious, fickle way like men do. For God not to change His mind at times would leave Him as a liar.
 

themuzicman

Well-known member
I'm not claiming that it is. You asked me how I would judge and I answered the question which had nothing to do with the conditional relationship between what will be your future and what I will examine which is past.

But you didn't answer the question.

And I'm providing you the opportunity to demonstrate without restrictions.

OR a standard to measure by.

The standard is simply that you do other than what you will do.
The standard for your test was simply do other than what you will do....

But I've already doen that.

Same test less restrictions. No one has foreseen it, now demonstrate your ability.

Already did. You must have missed it.

Well, it would appear it would require you to demonstrate doing something and not doing it at the same time: let's say use the word 'superfluous' and not use the word 'superfluous' at the same time. That would prove that you were able to do otherwise. Sound familiar? It doesn't matter who knows it or if it's even known.

Ah, you want me to do bith A AND ~A. You fail to understand Libertarian Free Will. Libertarian free will says that Agent X at time Z is able to do A OR ~A. You've asked for me to do A AND ~A. Your test is invalid, because it does not conform to the definition of LFW>

Let's examine your test at this point:



your ability to do otherwise(not using the word superfluous)

In other words your test requires us to use the word superfluous and not use it at the same time. According to you, the definition of LFW doesn't require that both are done simultaneously, but you require it within your test already assuming that LFW is false if foreknowledge is present. The test proves nothing since it doesnt' disqualify even your own definition of free will if we are unable to demonstrate what you ask. It's impossible to demonstrate what you ask, even for you, without the requirement of foreknowledge it's impossible.

Again, that's an invalid test, as you do not understand the definition of LFW. LFW isn't an "AND" condition. It's an "OR" condition.

Furthermore, you've failed to deal with the problem that "You will do what you will do" both being meaningless and false. "What you will do" is undefined, and thus saying that I will do the undefined is both meaningless, as it doesn't point to anything, and false, since whatever I do, it will be defined.

You need a new standard.

Maybe you would like to use this as a standard? Or we could say use the word "the" and don't use the word "the" in your next post. It doesn't really matter. Demonstrate away!!!

Again, LFW is an "OR" condition, not an "AND" condition, so your test is invalid.

We're waiting.

LOL....

Muz
 

Clete

Truth Smacker
Silver Subscriber
According to open theism.....

Does God hope for the best?

Is He capable of overcoming unknown problems which arise?

Did He have an alternate plan for redemption if Adam fell?

Is He there for us no matter what?

Was your father a godly man?​

My words were probably too harsh, but at the moment that's what I felt. I should temper my feelings better. Next I'll be calling everyone idiot or liar and that would be completely inappropriate.
Is it completely inappropriate to call man who says idiotic things that he knows are not true when he says them a liar and an idiot?

Had I and others not done so would you be here pretending to be repentant?

Of course, open theists believe God is powerful, knowledgeable, etc.,,,,,,,,, but those aren't his greatest qualities(o.v.) are they?
NO! They are not!
It is precisely when these quantitative attributes are elevated above their proper place, which is in subordination to qualities like His love and righteousness, that people end up embracing the settled view.

Resting in Him,
Clete
 

Philetus

New member
You confuse metaphysics (being) with morals (choices). Jesus had a will, not a causative, robotic being/nature.

For man, we form a sinful nature as we sin; we do not sin because we have a causative nature.

God choses to act intelligently and unselfishly at all times. He is holy. His character is not divorced from volition. His uncreated attributes like eternality, spirit nature, omnipresence/omniscience/omnipotence are being/metaphysical, not moral.

Our views affect our understanding of the Imago Dei (image of God) also.

Being concepts are philosphical in church history. One should not uncritically beg the question. You may be surprised that some traditional views are more Thomas Aquinas ("On Being and Essence") than Acts, more Augustine/Greek philosophy than pages of Scripture.

http://www.amazon.com/Untamed-God-Philosophical-Exploration-Immutability/dp/083082734X

This book will cause brain damage, but shows how even your classic/traditional theists are rethinking philosophically tainted concepts (he is not an Open Theist, BTW).

Do you like Ostrichs? Do you like sand?
:chuckle:
Hey GR.

I spent the weekend doing otherwise.

Here is a good one for your list:

Kent Brower, Holiness in the Gospels, Beacon Hill Press of Kansas City; 2005.

150 pages of really good stuff. Great treatment of Trinity and Incarnation. Even quotes Pinnock's "Flame of Love" in a favorable light.

The recent presses are full of Open Theism and Free Will Theism. Some may avoid the labels to avoid the flack, but the discussion is growing.

I like sand ... for my feet.

Philetus
 

RobE

New member
Is it completely inappropriate to call man who says idiotic things that he knows are not true when he says them a liar and an idiot?

Not completely, but doing so is engaging in jackassery. There are better ways to make the point. Personal attacks aren't necessary.

Had I and others not done so would you be here pretending to be repentant?

First of all, I'm not repentent for what I said, I'm repentent for how I said it. My response was to Godrulz who's always civil, even though not always right.

NO! They are not!
It is precisely when these quantitative attributes are elevated above their proper place, which is in subordination to qualities like His love and righteousness, that people end up embracing the settled view.

I would have to disagree. As AMR recently argued, I would say that all of His attributes are equal in quantity. He is the most loving just as He is the most powerful. One doesn't take precedence over the other. A great example is God is merciful and God is vengeful. God puts off His vengefulness in lieu of His mercy, but He is no less vengeful because of it. In fact, the Bible says that He simply does so to meet the decree of the preset date for judgement. Hope this explains it better.

Thanks,
Rob
 

RobE

New member
But you didn't answer the question.

I did, but you were unable to 'hear' it.

Ah, you want me to do bith A AND ~A. You fail to understand Libertarian Free Will. Libertarian free will says that Agent X at time Z is able to do A OR ~A. You've asked for me to do A AND ~A. Your test is invalid, because it does not conform to the definition of LFW>

Just as your test requires me to do.

Again, that's an invalid test, as you do not understand the definition of LFW. LFW isn't an "AND" condition. It's an "OR" condition.

I do understand the definition and have pointed out that your test requires the same 'invalidity'.

Furthermore, you've failed to deal with the problem that "You will do what you will do" both being meaningless and false. "What you will do" is undefined, and thus saying that I will do the undefined is both meaningless, as it doesn't point to anything, and false, since whatever I do, it will be defined.

Are you sure that it's a falsity to say "you will do what you will do." Now you're reaching. Meaningless, I agree, but false - No.

You need a new standard.

I need you to demonstrate doing otherwise just once and then I will jump on the open theism band wagon.

Again, LFW is an "OR" condition, not an "AND" condition, so your test is invalid.

Muz: Let's just assume that God foreknows that you will use the word "superfluous" in your next post. Now, while maintaining the truth of God's foreknowledge, demonstrate your ability to do otherwise.​

Forknowledge = "you will use the word 'superfluous'"
Ability to do otherwise = "you won't use the word 'superfluous'"

"Now, while maintaining that you will use the word 'superfluous', demonstrate not using the word 'superfluous'".

Again Muz, LFW is an "OR" condition, not an "AND" condition, so your test is invalid.

Shall we agree and move on?

Thanks.
 

Philetus

New member
According to open theism.....

Does God hope for the best?

Is He capable of overcoming unknown problems which arise?

Did He have an alternate plan for redemption if Adam fell?

Is He there for us no matter what?

Was your father a godly man?​

My words were probably too harsh, but at the moment that's what I felt. I should temper my feelings better. Next I'll be calling everyone idiot or liar and that would be completely inappropriate.

Of course, open theists believe God is powerful, knowledgeable, etc.,,,,,,,,, but those aren't his greatest qualities(o.v.) are they?

Rob

Is God Love? Does God have great hopes for you? You better hope so.

Absolutely! Paul says that men are always inventing new ways of doing evil. Problem for us .. no problem for God.

There is no 'alternate' plan for redemption. Jesus is it! Always has been ... always will be.

Is God where for us? Burger King?

Who's your daddy? (Not that it is any of your business but ... My father was a godly man.)​

Calling everyone idiot or liar would be completely inappropriate. Knowing one when you encounter him/her is not.

No. In fact ... God's greatest attribute or quality just might be His ability to patiently deal with idiots. Hence; your future is still quite open.

Philetus
 

themuzicman

Well-known member
Just as your test requires me to do.

Incorrect. I only asked you to do one thing. I didn't say you had to do both. LFW only states that you are able to choose either option, but does not require choosing both options.

I didn't ask you to choose doing A.

I do understand the definition and have pointed out that your test requires the same 'invalidity'.

But you are incorrect. I don't ask you to do both. I only asked you to do one thing.

Are you sure that it's a falsity to say "you will do what you will do." Now you're reaching. Meaningless, I agree, but false - No.

Not at all. Without EDF, "what I will do" is undefined. The unspoken assumption in your statement is that "what I will do" is already defined, and it is not.

What you're doing is trying to slide EDF in through the back door. And it's not going to work.

Muz: Let's just assume that God foreknows that you will use the word "superfluous" in your next post. Now, while maintaining the truth of God's foreknowledge, demonstrate your ability to do otherwise.​

Forknowledge = "you will use the word 'superfluous'"
Ability to do otherwise = "you won't use the word 'superfluous'"

"Now, while maintaining that you will use the word 'superfluous', demonstrate not using the word 'superfluous'".

Again Muz, LFW is an "OR" condition, not an "AND" condition, so your test is invalid.

Yes, but the "AND" condition isn't solely on you. In your test, GOD (is assumed to) foreknows what you will do AND YOU only need do one thing in the presence of that definite foreknowledge.

Unless you want to say that foreknowledge is causing you to choose 'A'....

Your choices are 'A' or '~A'. There is a clear pass and fail for this, you may either choose 'A' or '~A', and NOT BOTH, and then evaluate whether the conditions of the test were met or not.

Thus, I am not asking you to do 'A' AND '~A'. I'm only asking you to do 'A' OR '~A', and assuming that God foreknows 'A.'

So, please demonstrate doing either 'A' or '~A.' I haven't asked you to do both, as you've asked of me.

Thus, a clear difference remains.

Shall we agree and move on?

I know you're desperate to get away from that which demonstrates the error of your position so clearly, but you're not getting away that easily.

Muz
 
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Clete

Truth Smacker
Silver Subscriber
I would have to disagree. As AMR recently argued, I would say that all of His attributes are equal in quantity.
AMR made no such argument. He made the claim but that isn't the same as making an argument.

He is the most loving just as He is the most powerful.
This is not in dispute and in fact completely misses the point.

IDIO... :shut:

One doesn't take precedence over the other.
On the contrary. Even you must decide which to have take precedence over the other when decided how to interpret several passages of Scripture. You have no choice.

A great example is God is merciful and God is vengeful. God puts off His vengefulness in lieu of His mercy, but He is no less vengeful because of it.
His vengefulness IS merciful! This again entirely misses the point.

In fact, the Bible says that He simply does so to meet the decree of the preset date for judgement. Hope this explains it better.
What it explains is that you are not paying attention to the point or else are intentionally obfuscating. Your history would strongly imply the latter.

The point is not to say that God is less powerful than He is righteous but that when forced to do so, one interprets the Bible with preference to His quality rather than His quantity.

An example is any one of the several passages where God plainly states that He repents (i.e. changes His mind). You have a choice to make. Do you take the passage to mean what it says and preserve God's righteousness or do you turn the passage into a figure of speech in order to preserve His immutability?

There are many such examples of when one is forced to make such choices. The Settled View believer chooses the later, every time. Every time Rob! You can insist all day long that you make no such choice but the fact is that you do exactly that. You simply have no alternative.

Further, the Bible itself does so, stating in more than one place that God's authority is established upon His righteousness. Does that mean that God is more righteous than He is in a position of highest authority? No! It merely means that His righteousness is foundational to that authority and thus takes precedence over it.

Resting in Him,
Clete
 

RobE

New member
LFW only states that you are able to choose either option, but does not require choosing both options.

But your test does require choosing both options and is therefore invalid even according to your own definition.

I didn't ask you to choose doing A.

You didn't, that's true. You said I will do A and demonstrate doing other than A. You didn't ask me to choose. I already submitted that this is impossible.

But you are incorrect. I don't ask you to do both. I only asked you to do one thing.

An I only asked you to do one thing. DEMONSTRATE doing otherwise than what you will do.

Not at all. Without EDF, "what I will do" is undefined. The unspoken assumption in your statement is that "what I will do" is already defined, and it is not.

If you're an open theist then "what you will do" can never be defined, so what's the problem. I don't care about definitions I want a demonstration of you doing otherwise.

What you're doing is trying to slide EDF in through the back door. And it's not going to work.

No. My position assumes free will just as yours does so I'm 'sliding' nothing. I've simply pointed out that we are unable to accomplish a demonstrations of 'doing otherwise' because it's impossible from either view. You haven't done other than what you did and you won't do other than what you do. False - No. Meaningless - Yes. Just as your test. In fact it's the same test, except you've limited what I will do to "use the word superfluous"; and I have graciously allowed you to do anything you wish in the next post. Be creative. Make it happen. Let's see it!

Yes, but the "AND" condition isn't solely on you. In your test, GOD (is assumed to) foreknows what you will do AND YOU only need do one thing in the presence of that definite foreknowledge.

That's true, but then the test asks us to do otherwise than what we truly will do. No is able to achieve this. If you are able then do so. Again, I'm not asking you to do anything whatsoever. I only want a demostration of 'doing otherwise' so I might know that it is a valid concept. A demonstration mind you, not an explanation, a theory, etc..... Press submit and let us all see the result.

Unless you want to say that foreknowledge is causing you to choose 'A'....

I don't think either of us would say this.

Your choices are 'A' or '~A'. There is a clear pass and fail for this, you may either choose 'A' or '~A', and NOT BOTH, and then evaluate whether the conditions of the test were met or not.

The condition of your test is to do both simultaneously and is invalid. Do as God knows you will do and demonstrate doing otherwise(paraphrased).

My condition do anything and demonstrate doing otherwise.(Again, not explain - demonstrate. Press submit and it will be there.)

Thus, I am not asking you to do 'A' AND '~A'. I'm only asking you to do 'A' OR '~A', and assuming that God foreknows 'A.'

I'm simply asking you to demonstrate ~A so that I'm able to know it's a valid/demonstrable option when you do A.

So, please demonstrate doing either 'A' or '~A.' I haven't asked you to do both, as you've asked of me.

I haven't asked you to do both. I've explained that is the way the parameters of both our tests require us to answer. I've only asked you to demonstrate ~A.

I know you're desperate to get away from that which demonstrates the error of your position so clearly, but you're not getting away that easily.

Your test requires me to.....

....demonstrate your ability to do otherwise.

Demonstrating doing A is easy its the ~A demonstration I need your help with. Would you please demonstrate doing ~A for me in your next post. Or shall you accept that it's impossible under any condition? Remember, no explanations are necessary when you press submit I should see you not doing A. OK?
 

themuzicman

Well-known member
But your test does require choosing both options and is therefore invalid even according to your own definition.

No. My test requires choosing one or the other, and seeing if you pass the test. By now you realize that both options result in failure, which only demonstrates the logical contradiction of your position, but in no way does it require you choosing both.

You didn't, that's true. You said I will do A and demonstrate doing other than A. You didn't ask me to choose. I already submitted that this is impossible.

I never said that you would do A. I said that it was foreknown that you would do A. Are you saying that foreknowledge causes you do to something?

An I only asked you to do one thing. DEMONSTRATE doing otherwise than what you will do.

But "What I will do" is undefined. That's the problem. What is foreknown for you is defined, and thus your choice has meaning for the outcome of the test.

If you're an open theist then "what you will do" can never be defined, so what's the problem. I don't care about definitions I want a demonstration of you doing otherwise.

Once you define what success and failure looks like, we can proceed. You haven't done that yet.

No. My position assumes free will just as yours does so I'm 'sliding' nothing.

Sorry, but your statement asserts that "what I will do" is already defined. An unsubstantiated claim.

I've simply pointed out that we are unable to accomplish a demonstrations of 'doing otherwise' because it's impossible from either view. You haven't done other than what you did and you won't do other than what you do. False - No.

Again, incorrect. You cant' say for certain what I did was otherwise or not, because you have no standard upon which to judge.

Furthermore, since 'what I will do' is undefined, you are unable to make such a determination.

But you've not been able to define success for your test, because you can't tell me what I will do. I've defined success clearly for you. You just can't attain it.

I don't need to tell you what you will do. I only need state what is foreknown, and ask you to demonstrate LFW by doing otherwise. Success is doing otherwise while maintaining the truth of what is foreknown. Both the conditions and outcomes are clear. There's nothing undefined in my test at all.

Further,

Meaningless - Yes. Just as your test. In fact it's the same test, except you've limited what I will do to "use the word superfluous"; and I have graciously allowed you to do anything you wish in the next post. Be creative. Make it happen. Let's see it!

Again, that's incorrect. I have NOT limited what you will do to "use the word Superfluous." You may either use it or not use it! The point is that the test is clear.

OTOH, you're asking me to generate my own test, and you're unwilling to accept that you've both asked me to do something that is NOT LFW (both both A AND ~A), and to determine success and failure without a standard!

Do your homework man! Define success and failure clearly!

That's true, but then the test asks us to do otherwise than what we truly will do. No is able to achieve this.

VERY GOOD, SHERLOCK! We're making progress.

Thus, we can conclude from your discovery that LFW and EDF are logically incompatible!. Excellent!

If you are able then do so. Again, I'm not asking you to do anything whatsoever. I only want a demostration of 'doing otherwise' so I might know that it is a valid concept. A demonstration mind you, not an explanation, a theory, etc..... Press submit and let us all see the result.

Again, you haven't provided a standard of success and failure. Why should I do your work for you?

I don't think either of us would say this.

You certainly seem to be implying that foreknowledge makes only one choice available to you. I thought maybe you mean that it was making you choose.

The condition of your test is to do both simultaneously and is invalid. Do as God knows you will do and demonstrate doing otherwise(paraphrased).

Incorrect. The condition of my test is to do either 'A' or '~A', demonstrating the ability to do ~A in the presence of the foreknowledge of you doing 'A.' I've not asked you to do both, but to choose just one. You may even do the test twice, choosing 'A' for the first test, and '~A' for the second test, and evaluating success for each, if you wish.

My condition do anything and demonstrate doing otherwise.(Again, not explain - demonstrate. Press submit and it will be there.)

Unfortunately, you haven't defined what success looks like, so when you do your homework, we'll talk again.

I'm simply asking you to demonstrate ~A so that I'm able to know it's a valid/demonstrable option when you do A.

Again, you're shifting the burden of defining success onto me, when it is you that has to define success and failure. I've already completed the test to my satisfaction.

I haven't asked you to do both. I've explained that is the way the parameters of both our tests require us to answer. I've only asked you to demonstrate ~A.

Incorrect.

Specifically you asked:

"Now, while maintaining that you will use the word 'superfluous', demonstrate not using the word 'superfluous'".

Unfortunately, the first statement is definite foreknowledge, and isn't valid.

You've also admitted:

Well, it would appear it would require you to demonstrate doing something and not doing it at the same time: let's say use the word 'superfluous' and not use the word 'superfluous' at the same time. That would prove that you were able to do otherwise. Sound familiar? It doesn't matter who knows it or if it's even known.

Stating that your test requires both 'A' AND '~A' as has been pointed out previously. You haven't changed what little work you've put into your test to this point, so when you sort that all out, let me know.

Your test requires me to.....

Minor difference. I'm not asking you to do differently than what you will do. I'm asking you to do differently than what is foreknown. Unless, of course, you want to state that what is foreknown causes you to do what you will do, there shouldn't be an issue, here.

Demonstrating doing A is easy

But that's not part of the test.

its the ~A demonstration I need your help with.

Seriously? You don't know how to make a post that doesn't use the word "superfluous?"

Would you please demonstrate doing ~A for me in your next post. Or shall you accept that it's impossible under any condition? Remember, no explanations are necessary when you press submit I should see you not doing A. OK?

I'm glad to see you admit that the test is impossible to pass. That should tell you that the what you propose to be possible is, in fact, logically impossible. As you discovered earlier, this is, in fact, the case. It's not that your test is invalid. It's perfectly valid, defining the assumptions, and providing the available options, with definition for success and failure being very clear.

The problem is, as you've noted, that the "success" option is impossible, making your position logically contradictory.

Muz
 

Clete

Truth Smacker
Silver Subscriber
RobE said:
And I only asked you to do one thing. DEMONSTRATE doing otherwise than what you will do.
This argument is invalid.

It is not possible to do both 'a' and 'not a'. We cannot both do AND do otherwise. You are proposing as a proof of our position that we contradict ourselves, which is obviously invalid. Our position is that we have the ability to do OR do otherwise, not do both at the same time as your test would suggest.

I just read themuzicman's post and so since what I just said had already been said by him, I offer the following addition (which was also already said in so many words)...

Every time we do anything where there was a choice to be made can serve as an example of "doing otherwise" in the sense that RobE is attempting to argue here. As is pointed out by Muz, 'a' and '~a' are undefined until the action is performed and then that which is performed becomes 'a'. The real debate here is about when does the action become 'a'. If and action becomes what I will do ('a') before I choose between it and '~a' then that action was not free because there '~a' was never a real option for me to choose from.

Resting in Him,
Clete
 

RobE

New member
No. My test requires choosing one or the other, and seeing if you pass the test. By now you realize that both options result in failure, which only demonstrates the logical contradiction of your position, but in no way does it require you choosing both.

Wow! You don't understand your own question.

I never said that you would do A. I said that it was foreknown that you would do A. Are you saying that foreknowledge causes you do to something?

No. I'm saying that God's foreknowledge isn't in error.


But "What I will do" is undefined. That's the problem. What is foreknown for you is defined, and thus your choice has meaning for the outcome of the test.

No the problem is that doing otherwise never occurs in reality so is undemonstrable.

Once you define what success and failure looks like, we can proceed. You haven't done that yet.

I have --- It looks like doing and doing otherwise at the same time which is the same as your test requests.

Furthermore, since 'what I will do' is undefined, you are unable to make such a determination.

Sure I can. Through examination of the past and what you actually do.

I don't need to tell you what you will do. I only need state what is foreknown, and ask you to
demonstrate
LFW by doing otherwise.

Let's cut this short. You demonstrate 'doing otherwise' in the next post or I'll assume you are unable to do so. If you protest then I'll assume you are not able to understand your own test and our conversation about this is over. One way or the other your next post must demonstrate your ability to do otherwise to continue the discussion.

Please demonstrate LFW by doing otherwise or admit it's impossible.
 

RobE

New member
This argument is invalid.

It is not possible to do both 'a' and 'not a'. We cannot both do AND do otherwise. You are proposing as a proof of our position that we contradict ourselves, which is obviously invalid. Our position is that we have the ability to do OR do otherwise, not do both at the same time as your test would suggest.

I just read themuzicman's post and so since what I just said had already been said by him, I offer the following addition (which was also already said in so many words)...

Every time we do anything where there was a choice to be made can serve as an example of "doing otherwise" in the sense that RobE is attempting to argue here. As is pointed out by Muz, 'a' and '~a' are undefined until the action is performed and then that which is performed becomes 'a'. The real debate here is about when does the action become 'a'. If and action becomes what I will do ('a') before I choose between it and '~a' then that action was not free because there '~a' was never a real option for me to choose from.

Resting in Him,
Clete

We all agree the test is invalid.....

The problem is Muz's so called test has the requirement that 'a' and '~a' are valid simultaneously. My response was that its impossible to demonstrate doing '~a' whether a is known or not.

I will respond to your earlier post tonight. I'm at work and I don't have time to think things through here.

Why? Because I am unable to demonstrate not doing something. If I demonstrate it, I have to do it(and not do it).

:p
 

themuzicman

Well-known member
RobE said:
I have --- It looks like doing and doing otherwise at the same time which is the same as your test requests.

This is the problem right here.

You're saying that I have to do 'A' AND '~A'. As stated before, that's not the definition of LFW, so that's not a valid test of LFW. The question in my case is whether I may do either. And I may.

OTOH, you only need do 'A' OR '~A', whichever you choose, but you need to demonstrate keeping foreknowledge true, and doing otherwise. Notice that you don't have to do '~A'. Doing 'A' may constitute a failure of the test, but it is a valid option. So is '~A'.

I don't need to provide you a way to succeed by doing either one or the other, but only require that you actually do one or the other, so we can evaluate success or failure.

LFW says that you may do 'A' or '~A.' I've only asked you to do one, not both, and evaluate the results based upon keeping the assumption of foreknowledge true. And keep in mind that EDF and LFW are compatible is your assertion. I'm just presenting a circumstance where both are present and asking you to demonstrate it.

So, your statement about this test is false. You aren't being asked to do both. Just one will do.

You have yet to present a situation where LFW is present, as you want both 'A' and '~A' to be done, something I'm not asking you to do.

Let's cut this short. You demonstrate 'doing otherwise' in the next post or I'll assume you are unable to do so.

You have yet to define what this would demonstrate, as it does not demonstrate LFW.

If you wish to say that I cannot do different things in the same action at the same time, then I concede, but that's beyond the purview of the conversation and is pointless.

Muz
 
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