Acts 2:34

[Right Divider]

They are not different. They are exactly the same. If they would be different they would be TWO DIFFERENT GODS!

• Repeating your incorrect understanding only proves your stubbornness.
• THEY are ONE GOD! That's what the BIBLE SAYS.

Hebrews 5:5 So also Christ glorified not himself to be made an high priest; but he that said unto him, Thou art my Son, to day have I begotten thee.

You know what's interesting? YOU use the SAME verses that the cultists use to prove that Jesus is NOT God.

You go by what a false teacher taught you.

Your LIE # 1 BILLION!!!

 

[God's Truth]

• Repeating your incorrect understanding only proves your stubbornness.

• 
  Stop being a hypocrite. You repeat yourself.
  By the way, EVERY THREAD AND POST ON THIS SITE IS about people getting to say their belief repeatedly!
  
  You think they come here to say something once and then get called a liar by you then go away?
  
  

  [*]THEY are ONE GOD! That's what the BIBLE SAYS.

The word 'God' is SINGULAR and it is about ONE GOD, not three DIFFERENT GODS, as YOU SAY!

You know what's interesting? YOU use the SAME verses that the cultists use to prove that Jesus is NOT God.


Your LIE # 1 BILLION!!!

That is a count of yours about you.

 

[oatmeal]

The truth of the matter is that those verses, as you say, do prove that Jesus Christ is not God

 

[God's Truth]

oatmeal

Then what are you doing asking Jesus to forgive your sins?

 

[oatmeal]

Why would you assume I ask Jesus to forgive my sins?

I John 2:9

⁹ If we confess our sins, he is faithful and just to forgive us our sins, and to cleanse us from all unrighteousness.

Says nothing about asking anybody to forgive us of our sins, it does say to confess our sins,

"He" is referring to God. It is to God that we confess our sins

 

[God's Truth]

oatmeal

Why would you assume I ask Jesus to forgive my sins?

You don't ask Jesus to forgive your sins?

Matthew 9:6 But I want you to know that the Son of Man has authority on earth to forgive sins.” So he said to the paralyzed man, “Get up, take your mat and go home.”

Mark 2:7 “Why does this fellow talk like that? He’s blaspheming! Who can forgive sins but God alone?”

Ephesians 1:7 In whom we have redemption through his blood, the forgiveness of sins, according to the riches of his grace;

Colossians 1:14 In whom we have redemption through his blood, even the forgiveness of sins:

Colossians 2:13 And you, being dead in your sins and the uncircumcision of your flesh, hath he quickened together with him, having forgiven you all trespasses;

I John 2:9

You mean 1 John 1:9

⁹ If we confess our sins, he is faithful and just to forgive us our sins, and to cleanse us from all unrighteousness.

Says nothing about asking anybody to forgive us of our sins, it does say to confess our sins,

So you claim we don't have to repent of our sins?

"He" is referring to God. It is to God that we confess our sins

Jesus is God.

Mark 1:14 After the arrest of John, Jesus went into Galilee and proclaimed the gospel of God. 15“The time is fulfilled,” He said, “and the kingdom of God is near. Repent and believe in the gospel!”

Luke 13:3 I tell you, no! But unless you repent, you too will all perish.

Isaiah 59:20 “The Redeemer will come to Zion, to those in Jacob who repent of their sins,” declares the Lord.

John 5:14 Later Jesus found him at the temple and said to him, “See, you are well again. Stop sinning or something worse may happen to you.”


Luke 24:47 and repentance for the forgiveness of sins will be preached in his name to all nations, beginning at Jerusalem.

Matthew 11:21 “Woe to you, Chorazin! Woe to you, Bethsaida! If the miracles done in you had been done in Tyre and Sidon, they would have repented long ago in sackcloth and ashes.

Matthew 12:41 The people of Nineveh will stand up at the judgment with this generation and condemn it, because they repented when Jonah preached to them—and now, something greater than Jonah is here!

 

[7djengo7]

Not sure why the TOL programming is not allowing the "Quote" function to work, here, as I am trying to reply to TrevorL's post, #256, but I'll have to do the work of approximating, as best I can, the "Quote" function, in order to reply to what TrevorL said.

I had written to TrevorL:

Originally posted by 7djengo7 >>

Where in the Scriptures did you find your phrase, "David's Lord"? That's right: nowhere. It's not in there. Neither can it be deducted from Psalm 110:1, nor from anything else in the Bible,​

TrevorL's reaction to this was to write:

Originally posted by TrevorL >>

​

Matthew 22:41–46 (KJV): 41 While the Pharisees were gathered together, Jesus asked them, 42 Saying, What think ye of Christ? whose son is he? They say unto him, The Son of David. 43 He saith unto them, How then doth David in spirit call him Lord, saying, 44 The LORD said unto my Lord, Sit thou on my right hand, till I make thine enemies thy footstool? 45 If David then call him Lord, how is he his son? 46 And no man was able to answer him a word, neither durst any man from that day forth ask him any more questions. ​

Any more questions?​

Kind regards​

Trevor
​

"Any more questions?"

Sure. Where, in Matthew 22:41-46 (KJV), do you imagine you found your phrase, "David's Lord"? See, it's not in there. Indeed, we find the phrase, "my Lord", therein; but nowhere in the Bible do we find the phrase, "David's Lord".

Further, you have not deducted your phrase, "David's Lord", from Matthew 22:41-46 (KJV), nor from anywhere else in or out of the Bible. What can be deducted from Matthew 22:41-46 (KJV) is not your phrase, "David's Lord", but rather, the true proposition that Jesus was David's Lord when David called Jesus "my Lord".

But, by your anti-Christ heresy, you even deny the Bible truth that Jesus was David's Lord when David called him "my Lord", inasmuch as you deny that Jesus existed when David called Jesus "my Lord", a thousand years before Jesus was born in Bethlehem.​

 

[TrevorL]

Greetings again 7djengo7,

Not sure why the TOL programming is not allowing the "Quote" function to work, here, as I am trying to reply to TrevorL's post

Works ok now. It looks like the TOL computer could have been stubborn and did not obey you, similar to the way that I will not do or say EXACTLY what you demand. I will actually remove this aspect and a little bit more from your answer and question.

But you even deny the Bible truth that Jesus was David's Lord when David called him "my Lord", inasmuch as you deny that Jesus existed when David called Jesus "my Lord", a thousand years before Jesus was born in Bethlehem.

David was prophesying of a future event when David’s Lord would be exalted to sit at the right hand of God His Father after Jesus suffered, was crucified and died and was in the grave for three days, and then he was resurrected and ascended to heaven.

Jesus is yet to fulfil the promises to David 2 Samuel 7:4-16, when Jesus will return from heaven. Jesus will be seated at the right hand of God between these two major events Psalm 110:1, Acts 2:34.

It is interesting to read David’s response to these promises. He actually went into the new Most Holy Place, where the Ark had been placed and sat before Yahweh, thus enacting what would happen in the future to his own Son, His Lord:
2 Samuel 7:18–19 (KJV): 18 Then went king David in, and sat before the LORD, and he said, Who am I, O Lord GOD? and what is my house, that thou hast brought me hitherto? 19 And this was yet a small thing in thy sight, O Lord GOD; but thou hast spoken also of thy servant’s house for a great while to come. And is this the manner of man, O Lord GOD?

Kind regards
Trevor

 

[7djengo7]

@TrevorL;

Originally posted by TrevorL >>
David was prophesying of a future event when David’s Lord would be exalted to sit at the right hand of God His Father after Jesus suffered, was crucified and died and was in the grave for three days, and then he was resurrected and ascended to heaven

Being an anti-Christ heretic, you deny that Jesus was David's Lord when David called Jesus, "my Lord". Whom, then, would you say was David's Lord while David was writing Psalm 110? Or, would you say that, at that time, David was Lordless? Also, when, according to you, did (or shall) Jesus become David's Lord?

Originally posted by TrevorL >>

Works ok now.

Not for me, it doesn't--not on this thread.

Originally posted by TrevorL >>

It looks like the TOL computer could have been stubborn and did not obey you, similar to the way that I will not do or say EXACTLY what you demand.

What, EXACTLY, have I demanded you to do or say?

Do you think that I'm not satisfied with your continual stonewalling against the questions I've asked you, and with your willingness to continually act like a fool by trying to distract attention from your stonewalling? If you think that, why, then, you're sorely mistaken.

 

[Wick Stick]

The Psalm refers to David in the primary fulfillment. David filled the roles of a priest - he interceded for the country directly with God (after the census fiasco), he went into the holy place (priests only allowed) and ate the shewbread there (only for priests).

But David wasn't a Levite or part of Aaron's lineage. So, if he was a priest, then he was from a different order.

David was part of the order of Melchizedek. The requirements to be part of this Order are simple - you have to be the king of Jerusalem.

Jesus was ALSO a priest of the Order of Melchizedek, because He was the legitimate king of the Jews. And, with that station come the powers of a priest.

Jarrod

 

[TrevorL]

Greetings again 7djengo7,

Being an anti-Christ heretic, you deny that Jesus was David's Lord when David called Jesus, "my Lord". Whom, then, would you say was David's Lord while David was writing Psalm 110? Or, would you say that, at that time, David was Lordless? Also, when, according to you, did (or shall) Jesus become David's Lord?

Nice to hear from you again after a few days. It seems that you resurface after two or more days, but you seem to repeat or cover the same ground that we have considered previously. Perhaps it takes you two or more days to forget what we discussed, but even though I am old my memory is still reasonably good.

Psalm 110:1 is a prophecy of what would happen in the future, after the resurrection of Jesus. The One God, Yahweh, God the Father would invite Jesus, the Son of God, David’s Lord to sit down on God the Father’s throne on His right hand. David addresses the One God, Yahweh, God the Father as his Lord in Psalm 8:1-3, and refer also Matthew 11:25-30 as we discussed previously. It is interesting that Elisabeth calls Jesus when he was still in the womb “my Lord”.
Luke 1:42–43 (KJV): 42 And she spake out with a loud voice, and said, Blessed art thou among women, and blessed is the fruit of thy womb. 43 And whence is this to me, that the mother of my Lord should come to me?

Not for me, it doesn't--not on this thread.

Worked correctly for me. Perhaps the computer discriminates against your style and repetition. For example, your first statement in this post, "Being an ...".

What, EXACTLY, have I demanded you to do or say?

For example, I was amused at your repetition and demand that I accept your rant about “David’s lord”. Would you like me to quote these episodes.

Do you think that I'm not satisfied with your continual stonewalling against the questions I've asked you, and with your willingness to continually act like a fool by trying to distract attention from your stonewalling? If you think that, why, then, you're sorely mistaken.

This is typical of your complaints.

Kind regards
Trevor

 

[7djengo7]

Originally posted by 7djengo7 >>
Being an anti-Christ heretic, you deny that Jesus was David's Lord when David called Jesus, "my Lord". Whom, then, would you say was David's Lord while David was writing Psalm 110?

<NO ANSWER>

Originally posted by 7djengo7 >>
Or, would you say that, at that time, David was Lordless?

<NO ANSWER>

Originally posted by 7djengo7 >>
Also, when, according to you, did (or shall) Jesus become David's Lord?

<NO ANSWER>

 

[TrevorL]

Greetings again 7djengo7.

Being an anti-Christ heretic, you deny that Jesus was David's Lord when David called Jesus, "my Lord". Whom, then, would you say was David's Lord while David was writing Psalm 110? Or, would you say that, at that time, David was Lordless? Also, when, according to you, did (or shall) Jesus become David's Lord?

Yes, the questions of “whom” and “when” are important in order to understand Psalm 110:1, and I would like you to give your answer as well. A proper understanding of Psalm 110:1 will also help us to have a proper understanding of Acts 2:34 which is the subject of this thread and where Psalm 110:1 is quoted and expounded.

May I start with what I surmise is your understanding of this, as you seem to be claiming that David’s Lord (the “my Lord” of Psalm 110:1) was then in existence, and Psalm 110:1 is recording Yahweh’s invitation to David’s Lord to sit at God’s right hand at the present or past when David wrote the Psalm. My problem with this is that I question whether this fits in with the Trinity, as in that view God the Father and God the Son always existed and it seems strange for the One (God the Father) to invite the Other (God the Son) to sit down in the throne of God the Father. Wouldn’t they be already sharing the throne from eternity? So I would like your explanation of when Psalm 110:1 was fulfilled. Was it before David spoke, or after the resurrection of Jesus?

What I am suggesting is that although Psalm 110:1 is written in the past tense, it is what can be described as the prophetic past, depicting events that have not yet happened. Jesus Himself uses Psalm 110:1 to describe not only what has happened SINCE his resurrection, but also gives some indication that he is not yet seated on the Throne of David.
Revelation 3:21 (KJV): To him that overcometh will I grant to sit with me in my throne, even as I also overcame, and am set down with my Father in his throne.

And this is very relevant because the verse in Acts 2 that quotes Psalm 110:1 is set in the context of the promises to David that God would raise Jesus from the dead and Jesus would after this or some future time sit upon the Throne of David.
Acts 2:29–36 (KJV): 29 Men and brethren, let me freely speak unto you of the patriarch David, that he is both dead and buried, and his sepulchre is with us unto this day. 30 Therefore being a prophet, and knowing that God had sworn with an oath to him, that of the fruit of his loins, according to the flesh, he would raise up Christ to sit on his throne; 31 He seeing this before spake of the resurrection of Christ, that his soul was not left in hell, neither his flesh did see corruption. 32 This Jesus hath God raised up, whereof we all are witnesses. 33 Therefore being by the right hand of God exalted, and having received of the Father the promise of the Holy Spirit, he hath shed forth this, which ye now see and hear. 34 For David is not ascended into the heavens: but he saith himself, The LORD said unto my Lord, Sit thou on my right hand, 35 Until I make thy foes thy footstool. 36 Therefore let all the house of Israel know assuredly, that God hath made that same Jesus, whom ye have crucified, both Lord and Christ.

So I am looking for your proof that Psalm 110:1 is speaking of God the Father inviting Jesus at some event before David wrote his Psalm. Is there some record of Jesus sharing the Throne of God the Father before Psalm 110:1? Did the Apostles and other writers give some indication that Psalm 110:1 is recording a historical event during or before the life of David?

Rather we find that the NT expounds Psalm 110:1 as applicable to a time future to David, and the following is a list of some of these expositions:
Direct quotation: Matthew 22:41-46, Mark 12:35-37, Luke 20:41-44 (parallel)
Acts 2:34-35, Hebrews 1:13
Quotation or allusion: Matthew 26:64, Mark 14:62, Luke 22:69 (parallel),
Mark 16:19, Acts 3:19-21, 7:55-56, Romans 8:34, 1 Corinthians 15:25, Ephesians 1:20-22, 2:4-6, Philippians 2:9-11, Colossians 3:1, Hebrews 1:3, 8:1, 10:12-13, 12:2, 1 Peter 3:22, Revelation 3:21
Also compare Luke 1:43 and John 20:28
Psalm 110:4: Hebrews 5:6,10, 6:20, 7:11,17,21

And also if we examine even one aspect and enquire: When did Jesus sit down and what was the significance of this, the following is an attempt to explain this:
Exposition of Psalm 110:1 “sit thou at my right hand” in Hebrews:
Hebrews 1:3: Jesus sat down after the completion of his earthly work as a Saviour to purge our sins.
Hebrews 1:13: Jesus sits in a place of honour as the Son in distinction to the Angels who are ministering spirits.
Hebrews 8:1-2: Jesus sat down to begin his ministry as mediator of a better covenant based on better promises. Compare Hebrews 8:6.
Hebrews 10:12: Jesus sits down having offered a once for all sacrifice unlike the Aaronic priests who stand offering daily the same sacrifices.
Hebrews 12:2: Jesus sits down at God’s right hand as a reward for faithful service to his Father having become the author and finisher of faith. Compare Psalm 16:11. He is our example of faith we must look to.

So I hope this helps to explain the “Whom” and “when”. Nice to see you wearing your virus mask. We are under lockdown in Australia, but it seems to be under reasonable control, apart from some hotspots. I can still go shopping, and without a mask.

Kind regards
Trevor

 

[oatmeal]

Greetings again 7djengo7. Yes, the questions of “whom” and “when” are important in order to understand Psalm 110:1, and I would like you to give your answer as well. A proper understanding of Psalm 110:1 will also help us to have a proper understanding of Acts 2:34 which is the subject of this thread and where Psalm 110:1 is quoted and expounded.

May I start with what I surmise is your understanding of this, as you seem to be claiming that David’s Lord (the “my Lord” of Psalm 110:1) was then in existence, and Psalm 110:1 is recording Yahweh’s invitation to David’s Lord to sit at God’s right hand at the present or past when David wrote the Psalm. My problem with this is that I question whether this fits in with the Trinity, as in that view God the Father and God the Son always existed and it seems strange for the One (God the Father) to invite the Other (God the Son) to sit down in the throne of God the Father. Wouldn’t they be already sharing the throne from eternity? So I would like your explanation of when Psalm 110:1 was fulfilled. Was it before David spoke, or after the resurrection of Jesus?

What I am suggesting is that although Psalm 110:1 is written in the past tense, it is what can be described as the prophetic past, depicting events that have not yet happened. Jesus Himself uses Psalm 110:1 to describe not only what has happened SINCE his resurrection, but also gives some indication that he is not yet seated on the Throne of David.
Revelation 3:21 (KJV): To him that overcometh will I grant to sit with me in my throne, even as I also overcame, and am set down with my Father in his throne.

And this is very relevant because the verse in Acts 2 that quotes Psalm 110:1 is set in the context of the promises to David that God would raise Jesus from the dead and Jesus would after this or some future time sit upon the Throne of David.
Acts 2:29–36 (KJV): 29 Men and brethren, let me freely speak unto you of the patriarch David, that he is both dead and buried, and his sepulchre is with us unto this day. 30 Therefore being a prophet, and knowing that God had sworn with an oath to him, that of the fruit of his loins, according to the flesh, he would raise up Christ to sit on his throne; 31 He seeing this before spake of the resurrection of Christ, that his soul was not left in hell, neither his flesh did see corruption. 32 This Jesus hath God raised up, whereof we all are witnesses. 33 Therefore being by the right hand of God exalted, and having received of the Father the promise of the Holy Spirit, he hath shed forth this, which ye now see and hear. 34 For David is not ascended into the heavens: but he saith himself, The LORD said unto my Lord, Sit thou on my right hand, 35 Until I make thy foes thy footstool. 36 Therefore let all the house of Israel know assuredly, that God hath made that same Jesus, whom ye have crucified, both Lord and Christ.

So I am looking for your proof that Psalm 110:1 is speaking of God the Father inviting Jesus at some event before David wrote his Psalm. Is there some record of Jesus sharing the Throne of God the Father before Psalm 110:1? Did the Apostles and other writers give some indication that Psalm 110:1 is recording a historical event during or before the life of David?

Rather we find that the NT expounds Psalm 110:1 as applicable to a time future to David, and the following is a list of some of these expositions:
Direct quotation: Matthew 22:41-46, Mark 12:35-37, Luke 20:41-44 (parallel)
Acts 2:34-35, Hebrews 1:13
Quotation or allusion: Matthew 26:64, Mark 14:62, Luke 22:69 (parallel),
Mark 16:19, Acts 3:19-21, 7:55-56, Romans 8:34, 1 Corinthians 15:25, Ephesians 1:20-22, 2:4-6, Philippians 2:9-11, Colossians 3:1, Hebrews 1:3, 8:1, 10:12-13, 12:2, 1 Peter 3:22, Revelation 3:21
Also compare Luke 1:43 and John 20:28
Psalm 110:4: Hebrews 5:6,10, 6:20, 7:11,17,21

And also if we examine even one aspect and enquire: When did Jesus sit down and what was the significance of this, the following is an attempt to explain this:
Exposition of Psalm 110:1 “sit thou at my right hand” in Hebrews:
Hebrews 1:3: Jesus sat down after the completion of his earthly work as a Saviour to purge our sins.
Hebrews 1:13: Jesus sits in a place of honour as the Son in distinction to the Angels who are ministering spirits.
Hebrews 8:1-2: Jesus sat down to begin his ministry as mediator of a better covenant based on better promises. Compare Hebrews 8:6.
Hebrews 10:12: Jesus sits down having offered a once for all sacrifice unlike the Aaronic priests who stand offering daily the same sacrifices.
Hebrews 12:2: Jesus sits down at God’s right hand as a reward for faithful service to his Father having become the author and finisher of faith. Compare Psalm 16:11. He is our example of faith we must look to.

So I hope this helps to explain the “Whom” and “when”. Nice to see you wearing your virus mask. We are under lockdown in Australia, but it seems to be under reasonable control, apart from some hotspots. I can still go shopping, and without a mask.

Kind regards
Trevor

One of the challenges of rightly dividing scripture is to distinguish that which is prophecy of future events from events in the making or past events.

David had been told that a future offspring of David's line would sit on the throne of David forever. This progeny obviously would be considered superior to David in David's eyes and would thus be worthy of being Lord to David. Thus David looked forward to the redeemer's coming, even as we look forward to our gathering together unto him as described in I Thessalonians 4:13-18, I Corinthians 15 and and referred to in II Thessalonians

 

[7djengo7]

Greetings again 7djengo7. Yes, the questions of “whom” and “when” are important in order to understand Psalm 110:1, and I would like you to give your answer as well.

And yet, you still have not answered the questions I asked you:

Whom would you say was David's Lord while David was writing Psalm 110?

Would you say that, at that time, David was Lordless?

When, according to you, did (or shall) Jesus become David's Lord?

Since you admit that these "whom" and "when" questions are important in order to understand Psalm 110:1, your failure to answer them is an admission that you do not understand Psalm 110:1.

Nice to see you wearing your virus mask.

I'm not wearing a mask. What you see is a cartoon.

We are under lockdown in Australia, but it seems to be under reasonable control, apart from some hotspots. I can still go shopping, and without a mask.

Does it make you wonder, as it does me, what (if anything) is supposed to be meant by "lockdown", when those "under lockdown" are not prohibited from leaving home at will? In another thread, I asked Arthur Brain what (if anything) is supposed to be the difference between a lockdown and a ban against people leaving home at will. So far, I've seen no answer to this question from him, nor anyone else.

 

[TrevorL]

Greetings again 7djengo7,

And yet, you still have not answered the questions I asked you:
Whom would you say was David's Lord while David was writing Psalm 110?
Would you say that, at that time, David was Lordless?
When, according to you, did (or shall) Jesus become David's Lord?

What I have avoided is to be locked into your logic. Yahweh God the Father was David’s Lord during his lifetime Psalm 8:1, so David was not “Lordless”. When David calls the future Messiah as "my Lord" he is not speaking of his present Lord, Yahweh, God the Father.

You seem to assume that when David says “my Lord” that it proves that Jesus or God the Son or the pre-existent Jesus was existing at the time David wrote or stated Psalm 110:1. My answer is that God had given David a promise that he would have a descendant and this descendant would be the Son of God because Yahweh, God the Father would be his father. As such David recognised that even though he did not yet exist, and although this child would be his own descendant, that because God was to be his father, then this child would be his superior, his ruler and his lord.

Since you admit that these "whom" and "when" questions are important in order to understand Psalm 110:1, your failure to answer them is an admission that you do not understand Psalm 110:1.

When did Yahweh, God the Father invite Jesus to sit at his right hand, from eternity, at the time or shortly before David wrote Psalm 110:1, or after the resurrection of Jesus? I will see if you understand Psalm 110:1 by your answer that has seemed to be singularly lacking up until now.

I'm not wearing a mask. What you see is a cartoon.

I guessed that, but not sure if you added the mask to an existing cartoon. Possibly the look of your cartoon reflects your character, but I have not seen the cartoon series. Maybe it is familiar in the USA not Australia. I have guessed at various types of character, but your posts are sufficient. I have mainly thought of your forum name and it reminds me more of one of our native animals. They have built extensive fencing to protect the sheep.

Does it make you wonder, as it does me, what (if anything) is supposed to be meant by "lockdown", when those "under lockdown" are not prohibited from leaving home at will? In another thread, I asked Arthur Brain what (if anything) is supposed to be the difference between a lockdown and a ban against people leaving home at will. So far, I've seen no answer to this question from him, nor anyone else.

I can go shopping and I visited a fruit market, a fish co-op on the harbour 8km away and a local supermarket. I cannot go fishing, some beaches have been closed, friends cannot visit, our meeting hall is closed, most schools have been closed and we cannot sit in a park and eat takeaway. We can be issued a $1000 on the spot fine for infringement. We now have three of our meetings via the Internet, and a few social meetings via Skype and Zoom. My children are allowed to visit. There is some gradual easing of some of the restrictions as the virus has not been as bad as in some countries.

Kind regards
Trevor

 

[7djengo7]

Greetings again 7djengo7,What I have avoided is to be locked into your logic.

Logic is my logic. I'm already well aware of your enmity against logic, and how much damage you deal yourself by it.

​

Yahweh God the Father was David’s Lord during his lifetime Psalm 8:1, so David was not “Lordless”. When David calls the future Messiah as "my Lord" he is not speaking of his present Lord, Yahweh, God the Father.

According to you, has God the Father ceased--or shall God the Father cease--being David's "present Lord"?

​

My answer is that God had given David a promise that he would have a descendant and this descendant would be the Son of God because Yahweh, God the Father would be his father. As such David recognised that even though he did not yet exist, and although this child would be his own descendant, that because God was to be his father, then this child would be his superior, his ruler and his lord.

When, according to you, did, or shall, Jesus become David's Lord?

You admit that, at least for a time, God the Father had been David's Lord: "his present Lord, Yahweh, God the Father". So, when Jesus (as you say) later became, or shall become, David's Lord, would you say that David was, or shall be, switching Lords--dropping the one Lord, and picking up the other Lord in his place? Or, is he retaining his earlier Lord, and to it adding a second Lord? Has David had, or will he have, two Lords simultaneously?

 

[TrevorL]

Greetings again 7djengo7,

Logic is my logic. I'm already well aware of your enmity against logic, and how much damage you deal yourself by it.

But your logic is seeking to demand that I accept that Jesus or who David calls “my Lord” must have been existing when Psalm 110:1 was written. I suggest that you are having difficulty with the unique language. Psalm 110:1 does not say: “(In the future, inferring after the resurrection,) Yahweh will say unto my Lord”, but it says in the past tense, “Yahweh said unto my Lord”. You like asking questions but you have not answered my question, when did Yahweh ask “my Lord” (David’s Lord) to sit at his right hand. I will quote this again in case you missed it:

When did Yahweh, God the Father invite Jesus to sit at his right hand, from eternity, at the time or shortly before David wrote Psalm 110:1, or after the resurrection of Jesus?

I will answer your other questions when you answer this, even though my answer is obvious and your “logic” here is also transparent, and your punch line is also obvious.

Kind regards
Trevor

 

[7djengo7]

In post #269, I asked you:

Originally posted by 7djengo7 >>
Also, when, according to you, did (or shall) Jesus become David's Lord?

You (as you admit) never answered this question.

In post #272, I asked you the same question, again, by quoting it from my previous post, and remarking that you had not answered the question:

Originally posted by 7djengo7 >>
Also, when, according to you, did (or shall) Jesus become David's Lord?

Still, as you admit, you have not answered the question. Again, in post #275, I asked you the question a third time, in bold type:

When, according to you, did (or shall) Jesus become David's Lord?

You still (as you admit) have not answered the question I asked you.

But (as you and I both know well that you cannot even try to answer this question without further embarrassing yourself) in your post, #276 (which, n.b., came after, and not before, my posts #269, #272, and #275), you have tried to shift attention away from this question that embarrasses you by saying:

When did Yahweh, God the Father invite Jesus to sit at his right hand, from eternity, at the time or shortly before David wrote Psalm 110:1, or after the resurrection of Jesus?

Next, you pretend to think that I somehow owe you to try to deal with what you wrote in your post, #276, before you are obliged to try to answer the question I had already asked you three times (posts #269, #272, and #275) before you had even written your post, #276:

I will answer your other questions when you answer this

1. You're a liar. You obviously have no intention of even trying to answer the question I asked you.
2. Since I had already thrice asked you the question I asked you, before you had ever even written your post, #276, you fail to have any sort of bargaining chip in your ploy, here, of saying that I am somehow obligated to deal with your post, #276, in order to be "rewarded" by you with an answer to a question I had already asked you three times.

So, again:

When, according to you, did (or shall) Jesus become David's Lord?

You try to answer this question, and then, perhaps, I'll consider trying to deal with what you wrote in your stonewalling reaction to it.​

 

[TrevorL]

Greetings again 7dengo7,

[/LIST] So, again:

When, according to you, did (or shall) Jesus become David's Lord?
You try to answer this question, and then, perhaps, I'll consider trying to deal with what you wrote in your stonewalling reaction to it.​

I have given my perspective of what Psalm 110:1 is teaching in Posts #272 and #276. Psalm 110:1 is a prophecy of things future to the time of David, and depicts the One God, Yahweh, God the Father inviting David’s Lord, our Lord Jesus Christ, The Son of God to sit down at the right hand of God the Father. This would be spoken by God after Jesus was resurrected and exalted. As such Jesus had not yet been born, but David calls Jesus “Lord” in prospect because Jesus was to be made Lord and Christ and thus superior to David, and also superior to David because God the Father was the father of Jesus, and thus Jesus was the Son of God. In answer to the question that you do not want to answer, the above tells us when God invited Jesus to sit down at his right hand. Thus Psalm 110:1 does not prove that David’s Lord mentioned in Psalm 110:1 existed when David recorded or spake his prophecy, and your endless questions on this has no basis of proof. David is both dead and buried and has not ascended to heaven, so David will be in the company of Jesus, his Lord only when David is raised from the dead. Like the rest of creation he will bow the knee to Jesus, to the glory of God the Father.

Kind regards
Trevor