ECT 8 Things that sink D'ism

Interplanner

Well-known member
9 actually.

Thanks to Tambora, I can put this one away with this outline:

She wrote:
Don't mention land to IP.
It infuriates him that GOD promised Israel land.
And that the new covenant was promised to Israel & Judah infuriates him even more!
IP is really into replacement theology.


1, The excitement of Acts 2 was that the 'pouring out of the Spirit' had taken place. This was a gift to Messiah from the Father for Messiah's travail. The same thing is said in Eph 4 about the gifts given to men when captivity was taken captive by Messiah. This pouring out is also right in the middle of 'restoration' prophecy (in Ezekiel for ex) which D'ists think are to be taken so literally. Peter is saying it is fulfilled.

3, Peter continues to be just as enthused in ch 3 that this age in which Israel first was to be missionaries to the world was underway. Obviously this was underway with an event like Pentecost. But also it was what they had been taught was the promise by Christ (Lk 24, Acts 1). AKA the power of the kingdom that they had asked about. They NOW understood what the kingdom meant. 'Power' (authority to make declarations about things that were established by God's hand) was kingdom vocabulary; Jesus had been made Lord and Christ as David's vision had said, Acts 2:30-31.

4, This "unlikely" combination of Israel's destiny and the mission outreach through God-enabled gifts is also why Gal 3 says the Spirit is the promise, 3:14, where the grammar is saying that the Spirit is what was promised. This is why we have Peter referring to the Spirit and to the promise of including the nations in Acts 3 at the same time; they really are one manifestation.

5, Clearly, it has nothing to do with the land of Israel nor dependent on the worship system of Judaism, except as a preparatory illustration. This continues to be the case when Paul says all the same things in Acts 13's official sample sermon, and in his defense in Acts 26 where the hope of Israel is already realized and is the mission of Christ, not the thing they expect to happen by worshiping day and night at the temple. The obtaining of the land through Joshua is now a picture from Israel's past of obtaining rest in Christ from the fear of death through one's sins; remove that doctrine from Hebrews and half of it is gone.

I'm not furious about the land promise; it served its purpose; see several lines from Joshua on that. I'm furious as the inability of people like Tambora to move forward in a discussion like this to what is truly the issue. The RT remark is the same; see below.

6, D'ism is carnal and materialist, and happy to be so. It is not even remotely aware of the glorious truth as it in Christ. It is as though just a restored land would have resulted in any of this!

7, D'ism is that way (#5) just when the picture for the land of Israel could not have been worse. Rumors of total scorching by Rome were bouncing off of the mountains and desert stones since 6 AD when a general rebellion was started after the Census, Acts 5:37. "Secular" records tell us about that rebellion and the others, and Dan 8:13 said a "rebellion that desolates" was coming, but it is a 'sin' in D'ism to know such things EVEN WHEN 'SECULAR' HISTORY IS REFERRED TO IN THE BIBLE.

8, The new covenant launched at the last supper is for all people, and is found in the body and blood of Christ, but Christ was saying that much as far back as the beginning of his work anyway, because it is back at the beginning of Genesis. All the passages on the new covenant confirm that it has nothing to do with the land, and totally about the redemption from sin and death that is in Christ Jesus, Heb 8-10. Tam does not realize she is part of a Goebellian effort to snow those facts. No D'ist here has answered why Heb 9:15 confines the new covenant to a question of how sin is erased. STP said that that was "made-up" to think so.

9, There is a RT problem addressed in the NT and we should stick with that, not the 19th century one. It is in Gal 3:17 and the Judaizers had replaced the Promise of the Spirit to Reach the Nations--they had replaced THAT with the Law; or thought the mission to the nations would happen through the Law, Mt 23:15. Paul says someone had replaced the Promise and voided it with the Law; it was his career effort to get that straightened out.

Tell that to a D'ist and they have no idea what it is about.
 
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Interplanner

Well-known member
The Alpha and Omega of D'ism is the land promise. That replaced Christ. When the NT refers to these promises they are about Christ the Seed (singular).

It is odd that D'ism should do this, because there are then 11 mysterious chapters before it.
 

northwye

New member
Galatians 3: 17 says the covenant that included the law cannot make the promise of no effect. "But the Scripture has shut up everyone under sin, so that the promise by faith in Jesus Christ might be given to those who believe." Galatians 3: 22

"25. But now that faith has come, we are no longer under a tutor.
26. For you are all sons of God through faith in Christ Jesus.
27. For all of you who were baptized into Christ have clothed yourselves with Christ.
28. There is neither Jew nor Greek, there is neither slave nor free man, there is neither male nor female; for you are all one in Christ Jesus." Galatians 3: 25-28

"For it is written, that Abraham had two sons, the one by a bondmaid, the other by a freewoman.
23. But he who was of the bondwoman was born after the flesh; but he of the freewoman was by promise.
24. Which things are an allegory: for these are the two covenants; the one from the mount Sinai, which gendereth to bondage, which is Agar.
25. For this Agar is mount Sinai in Arabia, and answereth to Jerusalem which now is, and is in bondage with her children.
26. But Jerusalem which is above is free, which is the mother of us all." Galatians 4: 22-26
 

Interplanner

Well-known member
The use of 'in advance' in 3:8 makes it clear that justification, not just land promises, was being offered. So does Christs name THE LORD OUR RIGHTEOUSNESS as he was known then. So does 'it was credited as righteousness.' the NT tells us what the OT meant.
 

Danoh

New member
The use of 'in advance' in 3:8 makes it clear that justification, not just land promises, was being offered. So does Christs name THE LORD OUR RIGHTEOUSNESS as he was known then. So does 'it was credited as righteousness.' the NT tells us what the OT meant.

Nope - that's just you reading that into Gal. 3:8.

Again, Paul only mentions that event in Abraham's life towards reemphasizing his point through that as an example of the principle he is actually talking about - the principle of faith alone, in verse 6.

Galatians 3:6 Even as Abraham believed God, and it was accounted to him for righteousness. 3:7 Know ye therefore that they which are of faith, the same are the children of Abraham. 3:8 And the scripture, foreseeing that God would justify the heathen through faith, preached before the gospel unto Abraham, saying, In thee shall all nations be blessed.

The account of Abraham's having believed what God had promised him, and of God having accounted unto him for righteousness his having believed God, foresaw the very principle by which God would one day justify a whole lot of people in uncircumcision - by faith alone - just as He had justified Abraham that day when he too had been in uncircumcision - he justified him for his having taken God at His Word..

It is not saying said justification by faith alone was preached unto Abraham.

Rather, that just as Abraham had been justified by faith - for His having believed what God promised him - God was now justifying the uncircumcision on that same principle - on their faith alone.

3:9 So then they which be of faith are blessed with faithful Abraham. 3:10 For as many as are of the works of the law are under the curse: for it is written, Cursed is every one that continueth not in all things which are written in the book of the law to do them. 3:11 But that no man is justified by the law in the sight of God, it is evident: for, The just shall live by faith.

Likewise as to the circumcision, Rom. 4:12.

The Scripture ever foresees...the faith principle, Rom. 3.
 

steko

Well-known member
LIFETIME MEMBER
Nope - that's just you reading that into Gal. 3:8.

Again, Paul only mentions that event in Abraham's life towards reemphasizing his point through that as an example of the principle he is actually talking about - the principle of faith alone, in verse 6.

Galatians 3:6 Even as Abraham believed God, and it was accounted to him for righteousness. 3:7 Know ye therefore that they which are of faith, the same are the children of Abraham. 3:8 And the scripture, foreseeing that God would justify the heathen through faith, preached before the gospel unto Abraham, saying, In thee shall all nations be blessed.

The account of Abraham's having believed what God had promised him, and of God having accounted unto him for righteousness his having believed God, foresaw the very principle by which God would one day justify a whole lot of people in uncircumcision - by faith alone - just as He had justified Abraham that day when he too had been in uncircumcision - he justified him for his having taken God at His Word..

It is not saying said justification by faith alone was preached unto Abraham.

Rather, that just as Abraham had been justified by faith - for His having believed what God promised him - God was now justifying the uncircumcision on that same principle - on their faith alone.

3:9 So then they which be of faith are blessed with faithful Abraham. 3:10 For as many as are of the works of the law are under the curse: for it is written, Cursed is every one that continueth not in all things which are written in the book of the law to do them. 3:11 But that no man is justified by the law in the sight of God, it is evident: for, The just shall live by faith.

Likewise as to the circumcision, Rom. 4:12.

The Scripture ever foresees...the faith principle, Rom. 3.

:thumb: Exactly!
 

Interplanner

Well-known member
:thumb: Exactly!




Then there is no point in saying "in advance." There is also no point in saying 'it was credited as righteousness.' There was no point in mentioning the name of Christ as having to do with righteousness.

Poorly done, poorly thought out.

This is in a passage in which the campaign is to defeat those who think the Spirit of God's work to reach the nations will come through the Law/circ. The Spirit of God was not provided to tell people around the world that Israel may someday be relocated to Judea. It was given because justification from sins was available. In Gal 3, it is called in short the promise of the Spirit. that is what shifts all the building blocks of Judaism, and for that matter, of D'ism. The announcement that that gift was available was powerful enough (Acts 1) to make men bow the knee to Jesus the Lord and Christ. That is the power of the kingdom that was expected and which arrived.

Because it changes so much about the roots of their faith, Paul also bypasses the promises to the land in rom 4 (not mentioning them at all in Gal 3) and says Abraham would be heir of the world through it. The world. That's the NHNE, although now we reign in Christ to those who know what it means to be in Christ.

It is the resurrection that fulfills whatever was promised to the fathers, because the promise always was about justification from sins, Acts 13.

I can believe you as long as D'ist doctrines hold the same weight as the Bible; but they do not. The self-organizing passages of the Bible DO NOT say what you say about the expressions that matter: justification, credited righteousness, the Lord our righteousness, etc.
 

john w

New member
Hall of Fame
6, D'ism is carnal and materialist, and happy to be so. It is not even remotely aware of the glorious truth as it in Christ. It is as though just a restored land would have resulted in any of this!
His "argument"-Literal events/literal people/literal "things", such as land, are "material," and thus "carnal."

False dichotomy, as the opposite of "spiritual" is "carnal," not "literal," and not "material objects," as you imply, and attributing "literalism" as in land, as "materialistic," would also argue/mean/necessitate that Genesis 1:1 KJV, "the word made flesh," the cross of Christ, the tabernacle in the wilderness, the manger,.........................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................are carnal, as is the resurrection of the body(by definition)...............................................................................


You are a wicked deceiver, engaging in sophistry, and satanic "Replacement Theology."


Burn, Scarecrow, burn.....as that "materialistic," "carnal," future home of yours, called "hell," awaits you.....
 

john w

New member
Hall of Fame



It is the resurrection that fulfills whatever was promised to the fathers, because the promise always was about justification from sins, Acts 13.

Tell us why the physical(by definition) resurrection is not "materialistic=carnal," by your "argument," as the land is?

Admit it, you fraud....You just threw out that "materialistic" jazz, because you read it in a commentary, and thought, "Well, this sounds pretty good, even though I have no idear what it means, even though I'm a 'the Greek' expert, and I will impress the TOL audience...."
 
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