ECT The Jews knew about the Kingdom of God--

Lazy afternoon

LIFETIME MEMBER
LIFETIME MEMBER
Hi,

The Jews asked Jesus about the Kingdom of God (which MAD claims they knew nothing about)

MAD claims the Kingdom of God refers to the church age and the Kingdom of Heaven to the millennium age when MAD claims only the Jews reign)

Luk 17:20 And when he was demanded of the Pharisees, when the kingdom of God should come, he answered them and said, The kingdom of God cometh not with observation:

So why would they ask such a question if the Pharisees knew nothing about it?

Why would it be important to them?

The answer of course is that the Kingdom of God is the same as the Kingdom of Heaven, and the Pharisees were inquiring about the Kingdom which would come at Christ's second appearing.

LA
 

SaulToPaul 2

Well-known member
Hi,

The Jews asked Jesus about the Kingdom of God (which MAD claims they knew nothing about)

MAD claims the Kingdom of God refers to the church age and the Kingdom of Heaven to the millennium age when MAD claims only the Jews reign)

Luk 17:20 And when he was demanded of the Pharisees, when the kingdom of God should come, he answered them and said, The kingdom of God cometh not with observation:

:nono:
 

Interplanner

Well-known member
I don't think Mad claims that -

Right. as far as I know Mad says the mystery was unknown, and that the church is not the kingdom of God either and so would not be the thing the Jews did not know about, that the KofG was meant to be Jews only.

Hopefully one of them will report in on these things.
 

SaulToPaul 2

Well-known member
Right. as far as I know Mad says the mystery was unknown, and that the church is not the kingdom of God either and so would not be the thing the Jews did not know about, that the KofG was meant to be Jews only.

Hopefully one of them will report in on these things.



:sigh:
 

Interplanner

Well-known member
Hi,

The Jews asked Jesus about the Kingdom of God (which MAD claims they knew nothing about)

MAD claims the Kingdom of God refers to the church age and the Kingdom of Heaven to the millennium age when MAD claims only the Jews reign)

Luk 17:20 And when he was demanded of the Pharisees, when the kingdom of God should come, he answered them and said, The kingdom of God cometh not with observation:

So why would they ask such a question if the Pharisees knew nothing about it?

Why would it be important to them?

The answer of course is that the Kingdom of God is the same as the Kingdom of Heaven, and the Pharisees were inquiring about the Kingdom which would come at Christ's second appearing.

LA


The Pharisees did not have any distinctions about 2 comings that I know of. They had flat eschatology.
 

Grosnick Marowbe

New member
Hall of Fame
Christ's "Kingdom Message" was based upon His returning to earth, sitting on the Throne of David and reigning over His people Israel. Christ was privy to the fact that He came to die on the cross for the sins of ALL humanity and that the Jews would reject Him as their Messiah. So, He had to have been speaking about a time somewhere in the future. It might be said: "Christ is the ONLY person ever to come into the world with the specific reason of being put to death, in order to bring the Grace of God to those who would place their faith in Him as their Savior."
 

Interplanner

Well-known member
Are you speaking about The Kingdom Gospel Christ and His Disciples/Apostles were preaching?



There is only one Gospel. See! The lamb of God who takes away the sins of the world is the Gospel before Jesus gets a word out. The "kingdom" he was talking about existed through that declaration. There is no theocracy offered to Israel.

All this starts in Isaiah. If you follow how the NT uses Is 54, 55 (and you know what was in 53) you will not have your questions. But D'ism does not follow the NT. It is Judaic/old covenant in its view.
 

Grosnick Marowbe

New member
Hall of Fame
It's only a matter of time before that "Kingdom" will come to pass. Some, (The Church) as I believe, will be raptured (Taken) out of this world before the Tribulation, etc, will occur. God, will at some point, destroy this earth and create a new Heaven and a new earth.
 

Interplanner

Well-known member
Christ's "Kingdom Message" was based upon His returning to earth, sitting on the Throne of David and reigning over His people Israel. Christ was privy to the fact that He came to die on the cross for the sins of ALL humanity and that the Jews would reject Him as their Messiah. So, He had to have been speaking about a time somewhere in the future. It might be said: "Christ is the ONLY person ever to come into the world with the specific reason of being put to death, in order to bring the Grace of God to those who would place their faith in Him as their Savior."


NOpe, no delays, double meanings, privies. The kingdom he was talking about was made without human hands and would exist through the proclamation that he was Christ and Lord.

Acts 2: God has made him Christ and Lord and seated him for his accomplishment. The last I checked there were no higher positions than Christ, Lord and seated with the Father. No other titles or seats matter.
 

Grosnick Marowbe

New member
Hall of Fame
There is only one Gospel. See! The lamb of God who takes away the sins of the world is the Gospel before Jesus gets a word out. The "kingdom" he was talking about existed through that declaration. There is no theocracy offered to Israel.

All this starts in Isaiah. If you follow how the NT uses Is 54, 55 (and you know what was in 53) you will not have your questions. But D'ism does not follow the NT. It is Judaic/old covenant in its view.

There were two separate "Gospels" being preached back then. The Kingdom Gospel that Christ and His Apostles/Disciples preached and the Grace Gospel that was given to Paul by the Ascended Christ, to subsequently be preached to the Gentiles. Paul first went to the Jews with the Grace Gospel and they rejected it. Henceforth, Paul preached "Christ's Gospel" (The Grace Gospel) to the Gentiles.
 
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