There are a few.
Angel4Truth and Bright Raven are two MADists who claim 1948 was the fulfillment of prophecy.
I once made a post showing all the TOL MADists who claim 1948 was the fulfillment of prophecy (there were about 3 or 4 others), but I can't find anything anymore with this new TOL. The search function doesn't work like the old one, and a lot of threads and posts don't exist anymore.
I myself went through an long drawn out process of detailing the descriptions of the mark of the beast to you. Why was because you said it was Caesar or it could be a Jew but you didn't know (in Madist don't follow Paul post #162,pg.11).
Now if you recollect in your mind,my thinking was that if Israel was destroyed in ad70 and it also fulfilled the prophecies in Revelation 13 and the others that apply (they had to have had the mark,number worshiped the image ect.) for the wrath of God to be poured out on them ect.
The thing about it is this though if you remember I began to explain that the words(title of Josephus book) "Jewish wars" then the words Jewish revolt,the fact that they minted their own currency ect. actually give evidence that the Jews who were involved in the first,second and third revolts could not have fulfilled those scriptures concerning the mark if it was Caesar. If you notice I did not reject the works of Josephus as historical documents,I cannot see that they change me in my futurist/disp. stance at all they in fact support it.
In ad70 the armies of Titus rode the city of Jerusalem into the ground. As if an tree was pulled up by it's very roots and the dirt was shook off and it was cast into the pit,Jerusalem was removed from being an nation and it's peoples scattered throughout the known world to keep them from organizing another revolt against Rome. Notice that I did not deny the events that occurred in ad70,that is I am still an futurist,and an dispensationist,It injures me not.
It behooves us if preterit or dispensationist to ponder what mark the Jews who suffered the wrath of God in ad70 had received if that was the fulfillment of those scriptures,I think not though but out of fairness I word it for both. That is when we ask what is this Deuteronomy 29:24 KJV then we would understand them as Deuteronomy 29:28 KJV ,,,
Now we are also told that after "both" of the two things take place Deuteronomy 30:1 KJV that is when they have both received the blessings and the curse then another event will occur and it will not take place in heaven but here on earth Deuteronomy 30:12 KJV,,,
But first the two things were to be accomplished,both the blessing and the curse. So it injures me not again to agree that Jerusalem also fulfilled the scriptures concerning the curse(ad70),I am still an disp./futurist there is still an kingdom promised after the curse is fulfilled(Deuteronomy 30).
Also found in scripture is "an other" kingdom "an image,an imposter"(Revelation 13)and it also will fulfill prophecies that are written of it. It will say it is the Israel of God,the Jerusalem of God and stand up as a man. You as a preterit will not agree seeing you have this accounted for in you eschatology prior to ad70,but as an futurist I am still not injured in it in any way in my stance.
Look close and ponder 1948,that is it might be possible to look upon it and see it as fulfilling one set of prophecies when it in fact is fulfilling another. That is there is an kingdom that is the image of the beast that was and was not yet is and it will ascend out of the bottomless pit so dont confuse these events with the fulfillment of another.
