ARCHIVE: Open Theism part 1

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themuzicman

Well-known member
RobE said:
Your will is your desire. This being the case by definition then, according to you, your intellect causes your will. Read back through your posts and see that you don't consider your will the same as your desire and you'll find the source of my confusion.

Once again, you're putting words in my mouth. Guess what, Rob. I disagree with Aristotle regarding the nature of the will.

Doesn't your mind determine what your will is by sorting out the different desires and determining which one you are to act upon?

Actually, your will does that. I suppose the will is part of the mind, although I doubt either scripture or science can answer that question.

Your definition of WILL: Will is simply the faculity in human beings that chooses. It was created by God to make man a morally free agent, able to act free from governing law, external determism, and internal predeterminism.

Your choices are influenced by your desires(will). You do as you want and not otherwise. Are your desires 'free' or are they effects of other causes?

OK, you're playing word games, here. "Desires" refers to the competing influences within the person that compete for the attention of the will. The "desire" to lose weight will not want that 2nd bowl of Ice Cream, but the "desire" to satisfy the sweet tooth will DEFINATELY want that 2nd bowl. The desire not to be MORE miserable beacuse of a full stomach would be a "desire" NOT to have the 2nd bowl. You can call these "influences" if you want, but I would prefer that you NOT play words games.

Let's be honest. I believe in 'free' will, myself; but have to honestly ask myself if the desires(will) that I have are predicated from external or internal sources. Calvin dismissed the will as subjegated to God's decrees.

Gee, does that mean I'm not a Calvinist?

It's my wish, with your patience, to honestly discuss the problem this presents to my will being completely free. Do you have any answers for me concerning this subject other than "it must be free or we aren't responsible for our decisions/actions"? If not, I'll move on.

That IS the answer. I know what you've been trying to do for the last several posts, and clearly I'm not going to fall into your model of belief regarding the will. If you have something new to say without playing word games and without putting words in my mouth, then let's have it. I think I've demonstrated a pretty clear idea of what the will is, and it's both clear and concise (even if my spelling is not.)

The specific answers I need for now:
1) How do my desires remain uncaused by internal/external stimuli?

Which meaning of "desires" are you referring to?

if you mean the competing internal influences that both want and don't want that 2nd bowl of ice cream, these are caused by previous choices of the will, by the chemical makeup of the human body and other sources.

if you mean "desire" = "will", then the answer is that the will chooses what is the top priority at this moment, and that becomes the highest desire that we choose.

2) How are my desires created to begin with?

Again, meaning of "desires" is important, here.

If you mean the influences that compete for control of the will, some are inherent (sex, self-preservation, etc.), some are the result of previous decisions (drug addiction, overeating, other sins), some are the result of logical thinking, some are the result of past experiences, there are a vast array for sources of the things that influence us.

If you mean "desires" = "will", then the answer is that the will prioritizes in the manner that it chooses the influences that are competing for the attention of the will.

3) Are my desires free or can they be freed?

Again, this depends on which definition of "desires" you're using.

if you mean the influences that compete for the attention of the will, there are ways (supernatural healing, natural will, negative experience) to reduce or eliminate the urgency that some desire present to the will.

if you mean "desires" = "will", then the will is already free to choose.

Michael
 

Clete

Truth Smacker
Silver Subscriber
seekinganswers said:
It's this kind of rhetoric that just makes me sick. Godrulz, are you even aware of what kind of language of "knowledge" the scriptures use? Because for God to know something is quite distinct from what us Modernists seem to think we know about knowledge (at least in how we have conceived knowledge in our "Enlightened" day and age). You see, knowledge for us has been relegated to the empirical realm by the Enlightenment, which makes knowledge out to be nothing more than a passive observation of the world around us. So knowledge becomes a passive receiving in which we take the external and internalize it. This is science without Heisenberg. This is the idea that we can simply observe the reality around us and internalize it without affecting what we observe. It's this claim to neutral (passive) observation which I absolutely detest, because of its insidious nature. We claim that we are neutral in our observation when in fact we are quite active. We claim to be neutral in our knowing when in fact knowledge has become much more than a passive receiving of external things and is much more an active process by which we manipulate the world around us for our purposes. Knowledge in our world is not passive, and the scriptures are very certain that knowledge in their own world is not passive (for knowledge as "facts" is entirely absent in the language of the scriptures, but wisdom is right at home, and wisdom assumes a knowledge that is active, but it is an active knowledge that has been formed rightly).

Knowledge in the scriptures is always an active movement, and the question is whether our actions in knowledge are formed properly in God or whether they are malformed by the world. The first instance where the term knowledge occurs in the scriptures is when the man "knows his woman." If this is any clue to us in how the early Hebrews understood knowledge, than we would see just how absurd a statement like "God knows all things knowable" is. Adam didn't sit back and take notes on his wife. He didn't get all the "facts." He knew Eve because he tried to possess her (through sexual intercouse). Knowledge is more an action, in the Hebrew (and in the Greek for that matter), than it is a noun. Knowledge is not "facts" in the scriptures, it is an entire ordering for the world around us and how we engage with that world (and it certainly doesn't pretend that the Creation is an "other" from which the preson is distinct).

It's hilarious to hear you talk about your hatred for Plato because of how much you are at home in his very philosophy of the world. You say something like "God knows all things knowable" yet the fact that this statement makes its bed with Plato and the ancient Greeks is lost on you. You think that because you didn't learn about Plato or that you rejected have publically repudiated his ideas that you are now somehow immune to his influence. Might I suggest that it is going to take more of a route of repentance from Plato to purge yourself of him than simply a public renouncement.

You see, Plato conceived of the world as a dicotomy between the realm of the ideas (forms I think is his term) and the world of the practical and physical (i.e. the living out of those ideas). The forms are eternally held in the heavens, immutable yet most "real". And the world is an imperfect reflection of those forms, by which the world has participated in the form, but has become mutable and therefore temporal and less real. This is an idea of Plato that I absolutely detest. It is the language that will be used by Descartes and other pre-modern philosophers to create a dicotomy for both God and for humanity as well. It leads to the language of an eternal "soulish" quality of humanity (or mind depending on the philosopher) that is placed in direct contrast to the physical manifestation of the soul, so that the soul becomes more real than the actual person that we see living and breathing with flesh and blood. Eternity is turned into a static realm and temporality is the realm of activity.

But you see, in the God of the scriptures this idea is blown appart. There is not a dicotomy of reality placed along the lines of eternity and temporality. The dicotomy is between the Creation and the Creator. And in the Creator, through eternity, is the activity of the Trinity, a particular manifestation of reality that is eternal. God is not static for us Christians; God is eternally active. So activity cannot be relegated to the realm of temporality for the Christians, for activity in God is eternal (without beginning or end).

Now concerning knowledge, to say that God only "knows what is knowable" is to assume that knowledge is an eternally static reality that stands both inside and outside of God, and thus leaves a portion of knowledge which God then observes passively as it unfolds. This is absolutely bogus. God doesn't sit back and watch the show (God is no deist). God is actively involved in the Creation, so that God brings about what he knows; he doesn't just let it happen to him. Your statement is very backwards; God doesn't "know all that is knowable." The statement should rather be, "All that is known finds its grounding in God." There is nothing knowable that is outside of God, for "in God we live and move and have our being," and again "by God and through God and to God are all things." If there is anything that stands outside of God then such a statement which Paul gives would be rendered utterly meaningless. All that stands outside of God, for the Jews and the Christians alike, is the tohu vavohu (i.e. the void).

You are much more indebted to Plato and his idealogy than you even know, Godrulz, and probably much more so than you really want to be.

Peace,
Michael

I intend to respond to your other post when time allows but it is interesting how often your quite lengthy posts can be substantively responded to by the asking of a single one sentence question. To this post I would respond by asking the following...

Do you believe that God can do the logically absurd, like creating a cube with less than 12 edges and only 2 corners, or go to a place that doesn't exist, etc?

Resting in Him,
Clete
 
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godrulz

Well-known member
Hall of Fame
Nahsil said:
Just because God knows what I'm going to do, doesn't mean I have no say in the matter. If I have a baseball in my hand and I have to choose where to throw it: first base or third base, he knows which I will choose. He doesn't DICTATE where the ball will go, he only knows which direction I will ultimately settle on.

An elaboration on this can be found at http://www.carm.org/open/God_know.htm


When does He know this? Does He know this from before creation or proximal to the choice when He sees the thoughts being formulated in real time? I believe the latter since God knows the past and present exhaustively. The future is fundamentally different, especially the remote future. Your example applies to proximal knowledge and has no definitive proof for simple or exhaustive foreknowledge of all future mundane/moral choices. This extrapolation is unwarranted, logically problematic, and biblically indefensible.

Some kids intend to throw to first base, but then decide to throw to third at the last second (whether a good decision or not). Until the decision is formulated, there is an element of uncertainty. It is not even a possible object of knowledge from eternity past.

CARM also wrongly assumes the Platonic view that God is an 'eternal now'. This is problematic. Presentism vs eternalism is biblically defensible and logically sound.

I posted a new thread on Open Theism under Calvinism vs Arminianism. I appreciate CARM, but they certainly are biased against the Open View. No one is credibly trying to answer my position.
 

godrulz

Well-known member
Hall of Fame
Seeking: I am sorry I make you sick. Try Gravol and Tylenol.

Shorter posts would also be read by more people. I think their are TOL guidelines that discourage long dissertations. I appreciate your keen intellect, but you are limiting your audience. :cheers:
 

seekinganswers

New member
Clete said:
I intend to respond to your other post when time allows but it is interesting how often your quite lengthy posts can be substantively responded to by the asking of a single one sentence question. To this post I would respond by asking the following...

Do you believe that God can do the logically absurd, like creating a cube with less than 12 edges and only 2 corners, or go to a place that doesn't exist, etc?

Resting in Him,
Clete

Do you believe that because you can imagine something that if it is imaginable it exists?

I'll answer your question, but I will state the assumptions you are making before I answer the question. IF all activity in our world can be reduced to a simple set of observable laws that we label "logic" (or IF, as some of our physicists would like to do, we can sum it up in a single law every activity of the known universe, a "theory of everything") and IF God is also subject to that set of laws in the Creation, then no, God cannot do anything that is "logically absurd". But here is the rub, you assume that the Creation is upheld through a simple set of laws (i.e. that if God were absent, the Creation would continue to "work," for God is nothing more than a watchmaker who winds up the clock and lets it go, and only "tinkers" here and there when the watch stops working properly). This is deism, and is the foundation for the rise of many nation states, for the nation-state assumes a reality in which God is not active (but God is passively present in the Creation).

You see, many of the founding fathers of the European and North American nations made the assumption that god is not currently active in our world (though god is responsible for setting it into motion) and so a person is in no need of a god in our physical everyday life. The question of god was a question of ultimacy, which could only appeal to the eternal "spiritual" realm, i.e. the realm of the "soulish" person. The physical world was coming to an end, so god has no authority on earth, for god has yielded god's authority to an impersonal "law" which now controlled both god and the creation. If we were going to learn how to live now, we would have to appeal to "natural law" (which is a very poor interpretation of Thomas Aquinas' natural law as the "natural law" of Thomas Aquinas was equated to the "logic" developed in greater scientific enquiry). But the ultimate result is that the physical realm is no longer the realm that need any god to explain it; and so that gave the "right" to the powers that be to take for themselves the coersive powers (like war, taxation, civil and criminal law, and all that our current "governments" now claim as their own) without having any need to have those powers checked by any god. We now had a godless people who still "believed in" (gave intellectual ascent to) god.

This is the grounding of your assumptions, and it is for that reason that I think the entire question is absurd, for you think you're just asking a question when, in fact, your question that was meant to be a passive look at reality has actively shaped reality in a way that affirms a way of life that humanity has grounded itself in within the Modern World and the nation-states, and out of which humanity becomes the judge of God.

As Nietzche put it, "God is dead," and we (the Modern Man) are responsible for his death. Of course Nietzche only had enough resources to deconstruct. He of course didn't give "intellectual ascent to" (believe in), nor was he shaped in Christ to follow the God of Creation. But in many ways this outcry of Nietzche is an echo of the prophets of Israel, and ought to have led us to great trepidation. Instead, Christians saw Nietzche's attack as an attack on them, and this only sealed their allegiance to the state. Oh how long will it be before we learn from the mistakes past, for we like Israel have rejected the message of the prophets to continue to feel smug in our national life? And as judgment is close at hand we are laughing at the God of patience, for we demand God to respond on our terms (to come right away and show himself as he truly is). Repentance for us will come too late, and our only response to the God of love who finally comes as we have asked him to come will be, "Fall on us oh mountains, and hide us from the terrible wrath of the lamb!!!"

Peace,
Michael
 

Clete

Truth Smacker
Silver Subscriber
seekinganswers said:
Do you believe that because you can imagine something that if it is imaginable it exists?
No. Darth Vader does not exist in reality.

I'll answer your question, but I will state the assumptions you are making before I answer the question. IF all activity in our world can be reduced to a simple set of observable laws that we label "logic" (or IF, as some of our physicists would like to do, we can sum it up in a single law every activity of the known universe, a "theory of everything") and IF God is also subject to that set of laws in the Creation, then no, God cannot do anything that is "logically absurd".
Logic was not created any more than righteousness or personality was created. Logic is an aspect of God's character. God is rational. This is the only rationally coherent manner in which to account for the existence of logic and thus must be true because of the impossibility of the contrary. Thus your IF's must all be presupposed and thus God cannot do the logically absurd because to do the logically absurd would be to not do it (i.e. it is a violation of the law of non-contradiction).

But here is the rub, you assume that the Creation is upheld through a simple set of laws (i.e. that if God were absent, the Creation would continue to "work," for God is nothing more than a watchmaker who winds up the clock and lets it go, and only "tinkers" here and there when the watch stops working properly).
I assume no such thing. You don't know me and you assume way, way too much. You seem to assume that the arguments you heard against one man's position will work for any man's position because if they believe similar things they must have similar roots. This is a fallacy of logic and judging from your posts, you should have already been aware of that.
I do not believe that every single thing that happens must be physically and specifically made to happen by God but that does not mean I believe that God is uninvolved in the creation. God is perfectly capable of creating a working system. In fact, if He were not able to do so, then neither would we be. The fact than men can create systems that work independent of any direct involvement of its inventor is proof that God is capable of the same sort of "engineering". And so, no the world would not instantaneously fly into pieces if God stopped holding it together. It would break down and fall apart eventually, of course. In fact, it is in the process of doing that right now. God's maintenance of the universe is analogous to our having to maintain any system here on Earth. The maintenance to a system is directly related to the systems complexity and indirectly related to the systems quality. That is to say that the maintenance required for a system goes up with the systems complexity and decreases with its level of quality. The maintenance level required for the universe is, I think, quite impossible to calculate because while it is wildly complex it is also of the highest quality possible in a sinful, fallen universe. I tend to think that God is a pretty good designer and so it would seem to me that the universe as a whole requires very little in the way of direct intervention. But where humans are involved things tend to get pretty messy pretty fast and thus a higher level of maintenance is called for.
But none of this speaks to the level of involvement that God has in this universe because just as Ford did not invent the car in order to give shade tree mechanics something to do, God did not create the universe just to see how well it would run on its own. Ford invented the car so that he could drive it and God created the universe and the people within it so that He could interact with and have a relationship with it. God is intimately involved in the universe because it was made for that purpose not because He is forced to in order to keep it from flying into chaos the moment He takes His eyes off it. God is a much better designer than that.

Well, there's more to say but I'm out of time. I will close with this.

Can you demonstrate that logic is an aspect of the creation without question begging?

If you cannot do that (which you can't), will you concede that God is rational and that logic is therefore an aspect of God's character and that therefore God cannot do the logically absurd and that therefore God cannot know that which cannot be known?

Resting in Him,
Clete
 
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RobE

New member
Your definition of WILL: Will is simply the faculity in human beings that chooses. It was created by God to make man a morally free agent, able to act free from governing law, external determism, and internal predeterminism.

Rob: Your choices are influenced by your desires(will). You do as you want and not otherwise. Are your desires 'free' or are they effects of other causes?​

Michael: OK, you're playing word games, here. "Desires" refers to the competing influences within the person that compete for the attention of the will. The "desire" to lose weight will not want that 2nd bowl of Ice Cream, but the "desire" to satisfy the sweet tooth will DEFINATELY want that 2nd bowl. The desire not to be MORE miserable beacuse of a full stomach would be a "desire" NOT to have the 2nd bowl. You can call these "influences" if you want, but I would prefer that you NOT play words games.

Rob: The specific answers I need for now:
1) How do my desires remain uncaused by internal/external stimuli?​

Michael: Which meaning of "desires" are you referring to?

if you mean the competing internal influences that both want and don't want that 2nd bowl of ice cream, these are caused by previous choices of the will, by the chemical makeup of the human body and other sources.

if you mean "desire" = "will", then the answer is that the will chooses what is the top priority at this moment, and that becomes the highest desire that we choose.

As far as I can decipher from our discussion your will is the desire in you that wins out at any given moment. The strongest desire in you becomes your will or at least what your will responds to. Now your will responding to a certain desire makes your will the effect of that desire.

If your will 'decides' between multiple desires isn't it true that your will enslaves itself to the desire that it chooses; and therefore, your will becomes the effect of that desire.

If your will is simply your desire then you've already acknowledged that your desire has a cause.

Where in all this does your will escape unscathed?

Rob
 

Philetus

New member
Lighthouse said:
See what I mean.

There is no hope for you godrulz.

:rotfl:
I don’t care what the red hooded horned lighthouse says about godrulz!
There is hope for all of us.
not much ... but some.
 

seekinganswers

New member
Clete said:
Logic was not created any more than righteousness or personality was created. Logic is an aspect of God's character. God is rational. This is the only rationally coherent manner in which to account for the existence of logic and thus must be true because of the impossibility of the contrary. Thus your IF's must all be presupposed and thus God cannot do the logically absurd because to do the logically absurd would be to not do it (i.e. it is a violation of the law of non-contradiction).

Did you even hear your circular reasoning? First you claimed that "God is rational." Then you justified your claim by stating, "This is the only rationally coherent manner in which to account for the existence of logic and thus must be true because of the impossibility of the contrary." The last time I checked if you try to prove something on the basis of what you are trying to prove, you have proved nothing. You in essence have said "God is rational because God is rational, therefore we cannot say that God is "irrational".

Rationality and logic are creations of men, despite what you have been taught in your schooling that they are character-trait of God. The reason I say this is that logic and rationality are nothing more than frameworks of observation and sets of norms by which the human is "best" able to interact with the world around him or her. But this is nothing more than the mind's attempt to abstract the world around it, and to draw from those abstractions (those simplifications) meaningful data. So, when we see a line at the horizon, our brain is taking the data that is being received (through our eyes) and is interpreting that data according to a set of norms and principles already imbedded in the brain (imbedded not from birth but from early formation in childhood). So the line we see in actuality is nothing more than a line drawn by our brain to help make sense of the distinction between the sky and the land (or the sea). Not all people would see the line that we see. I'll illustrate for you another example. The Mbuti tribe is a pygmy tribe in the Congo region of Africa. They live in the jungle and do not ever leave the jungle, except to trade with other peoples in small clearings of the jungle made for farming. Now western anthropologists have gone to this people and have "observed" them and their way of life. I read an anthology of a particular anthropologist who took one of the members of the tribe on a trip out of the jungle and onto the open plains of Africa (and to the ocean). This caused great fear in the young man from the tribe, not because he was easily frightened, but because the logic and rationality that were formed in him from his childhood onward was entirely grounded on his life in the jungle. He had no sets of norms by which to make sense of the open plains. He had never dealt with distances greater than 50 yards ahead of him. So when he saw animals on the open plain, his first question to the anthropologist was, "Why are the animals so small?" And when the animals grew to be the size of the animals he knew he was even more amazed at such a feat. Was his logic wrong? No, it wasn't at all. It suited him very well for the life he lived in the jungle. But the logic he shared with his tribe (or that his tribe shared with him) was hardly universal.

Are you seriously going to claim, Clete, that you have obtained a universal logic? Logic is not a universal abstract thing (and if you believe that logic is universal and all-pervading you are grounding yourself in a very Greek understanding of the world). Christians do not believe that there is an all-pervasive, impersonal and abstract logic that governs the cosmos (as a character-trait of God). This was the Greek concept of "logos". Christians took this universal of the Greeks and made it very concrete, "And the Logos (which was a person, not a character-trait) became flesh (and blood) and made his dwelling among us." Ironically, this word logos is the root from which we derive the English logic. So, logos as an impersonal and and abstract concept is meaningless for Christians. True logos is embodied, it is incarnate, and logos is not a quality of God but is a person within the Godhead.

Clete said:
You don't know me and you assume way, way too much. You seem to assume that the arguments you heard against one man's position will work for any man's position because if they believe similar things they must have similar roots. This is a fallacy of logic and judging from your posts, you should have already been aware of that.

This is not a logical fallacy. You did the same thing with me in a previous post when I had said "I am not a philosopher" (and I might add you misunderstood what I was saying). When I said, "I am not a philosopher" maybe I should have explained to you that in no way was I denying the fact that I have been influenced by philosophy in my studies, and that those philosophies have had an impact on me. But my denial of the title "philosopher" is mostly on the basis that I will never accept the secular ground in which philosophy must take place. I am a theologian in this respect, not a philosopher. But you who would sit here and point out to me the fact that I cannot escape the formation in which I have been grounded, you would claim that you have done just that? You would say that you have taken the part of the Enlightenment that best suits you without being influenced by the very philosophers who stand at the head of that Enlightenment (whose ideologies pervade the humanism and individually centered life that would come about as a result and which is embraced in Christian emotionalism and revivalism)? You hypocrite. If you are going to make sure that I see the influence that has developed my thinking than you had better not accuse me of fallacy when I do the same for you.

Clete said:
I do not believe that every single thing that happens must be physically and specifically made to happen by God but that does not mean I believe that God is uninvolved in the creation. God is perfectly capable of creating a working system. In fact, if He were not able to do so, then neither would we be. The fact than men can create systems that work independent of any direct involvement of its inventor is proof that God is capable of the same sort of "engineering". And so, no the world would not instantaneously fly into pieces if God stopped holding it together. It would break down and fall apart eventually, of course. In fact, it is in the process of doing that right now. God's maintenance of the universe is analogous to our having to maintain any system here on Earth. The maintenance to a system is directly related to the systems complexity and indirectly related to the systems quality. That is to say that the maintenance required for a system goes up with the systems complexity and decreases with its level of quality. The maintenance level required for the universe is, I think, quite impossible to calculate because while it is wildly complex it is also of the highest quality possible in a sinful, fallen universe. I tend to think that God is a pretty good designer and so it would seem to me that the universe as a whole requires very little in the way of direct intervention. But where humans are involved things tend to get pretty messy pretty fast and thus a higher level of maintenance is called for.

And this is deism. God as the designer is the god of deism. This is to say that god creates an autonomous (sovereign) reality other than himself that can be sustained by the processes that god has set into motion. The god of deism is caught up into the reality of cause and effect, where god becomes the first cause for the creation. God sets things into motion, but the creation with regards to most cases is self sustaining. The god of deism is not absent from the creation, but the god of deism does not sustain the creation. The only way that god acts in the creation for deists is precisely the way in which you have described it, as an "intervention". And as I said before, if this is your god, then the statements of Paul are rendered utterly meaningless: "In God we live and move and have being...for God is not far from each one of us." And again, "By God and through God and to God are all things." If God in the Creation has created nothing more than an autonomous reality, than it could not be said that this Creation, "lives and moves and has its being in God," nor could it be said that it is "by God and through God and to God."

Clete said:
But none of this speaks to the level of involvement that God has in this universe because just as Ford did not invent the car in order to give shade tree mechanics something to do, God did not create the universe just to see how well it would run on its own. Ford invented the car so that he could drive it and God created the universe and the people within it so that He could interact with and have a relationship with it. God is intimately involved in the universe because it was made for that purpose not because He is forced to in order to keep it from flying into chaos the moment He takes His eyes off it. God is a much better designer than that.

The fact that you would compare the reasoning for God's Creation with the Ford Company's reasoning for making cars shows just how corrupt you are (because Ford makes cars for profit, not to allow people to drive places). One could not say that "in Ford the cars live and move and have their being" nor could it be said that "by Ford and through Ford and to Ford are all cars." Clearly Ford's making of cars is no where near analogous to God's Creating the universe as related to us in the scriptures. Ford Company, however, bears a striking resemblance to the god of the deists (though Ford is much more "real" than their god).

Clete said:
Can you demonstrate that logic is an aspect of the creation without question begging?

As I said before, logic is a construction of humanity by which we order our observations in order to better manouver ourselves in this world. Logic is very concrete, and is tied to the body of the person that uses it. And logic is not the same from person to person, but logical constructs are established depending on our context.

Clete said:
If you cannot do that (which you can't), will you concede that God is rational and that logic is therefore an aspect of God's character and that therefore God cannot do the logically absurd and that therefore God cannot know that which cannot be known?

In the words of Paul of Tarsus, "Where is the wise man? Where is the scholar? Where is the philosopher of this age? Has not God made foolish the wisdom of the world? For since in the wisdom of God the world through its wisdom did not know him, God was pleased through the foolishness of what was preached to save those who believe. Jews demand miraculous signs and Greeks look for wisdom, but we preach Christ crucified: a stumbling block to Jews and foolishness to Gentiles, but to those whom God has called, both Jews and Greeks, Christ the power of God and the wisdom of God. For the foolishness of God is wiser than man's wisdom, and the weakness of God is stronger than man's strength."

According to Paul God did just what you deny of him, that he took the logically absurd and made it the foundation for the life of his people.

Peace,
Michael
 

Mustard Seed

New member
seekinganswers said:
Did you even hear your circular reasoning? First you claimed that "God is rational." Then you justified your claim by stating, "This is the only rationally coherent manner in which to account for the existence of logic and thus must be true because of the impossibility of the contrary." The last time I checked if you try to prove something on the basis of what you are trying to prove, you have proved nothing. You in essence have said "God is rational because God is rational, therefore we cannot say that God is "irrational".

The likes of those who hold the presupositionalist view shared by Clete and Hilston give them membership to the fraternal order titled--

N.I.N.C.O.M.P.O.O.P.

An order that, through their name, declares--in their own (even if just implicit) words--their greatest attribute. It is as follows "Negligably Interupted Near Circularly Ordered Mental Processes Of Own Production"
 

seekinganswers

New member
godrulz said:
Seeking: I am sorry I make you sick. Try Gravol and Tylenol.

Shorter posts would also be read by more people. I think their are TOL guidelines that discourage long dissertations. I appreciate your keen intellect, but you are limiting your audience. :cheers:

It is the rhetoric, not you, which makes me sick, Godrulz. It makes me sick because it claims an origin that is false. That is what my extended rant was about. Your rhetoric is not sourced in the early church but is grounded in the language and ideology of the Modern World.

So if you don't want to read my long post, I will shorten it. I've got to start with a question to you, however, and it will concern your definition of the term knowledge. When the scriptures speak about knowledge, in your opinion, is the act of knowing passive or active? By this I mean is knowledge the passive observation of events (empircal data) or is knowledge an active ordering of the world around us to allow us to react within? Is there such a thing as passive knowledge (simple data) or is knowledge always active (i.e. taking data and ordering it in a certain way)? I'm not saying that raw data does not exist, but I am asking you if raw data is ever treated by humanity as raw data? In essence I am asking you whether you believe the scientific method informs the scriptural view of knowledge or not.

Peace,
Michael
 

Bob Hill

TOL Subscriber
Clete,

Keep up the good work.

God created the universe and the people within it so that He could interact with and have a relationship with it. God is intimately involved in the universe because it was made for that purpose not because He is forced to in order to keep it from flying into chaos the moment He takes His eyes off it. God is a much better designer than that.

This is very clear. It's like John 3:14-17 “And as Moses lifted up the serpent in the wilderness, even so must the Son of Man be lifted up, 15 that whoever believes in Him should not perish but have eternal life. 16 For God so loved the world that He gave His only begotten Son, that whoever believes in Him should not perish but have everlasting life. 17 For God did not send His Son into the world to condemn the world, but that the world through Him might be saved." Of course I used that passage because everyone knows it. The real point is we must trust in Christ as our Savior.

In Christ,
Bob Hill
 

seekinganswers

New member
Bob Hill said:
Keep up the good work.

Clete said:
God created the universe and the people within it so that He could interact with and have a relationship with it. God is intimately involved in the universe because it was made for that purpose not because He is forced to in order to keep it from flying into chaos the moment He takes His eyes off it. God is a much better designer than that.

So the Creation is nothing more than a giant playground with which God can amuse himself? Or even better, the Creation is a pet to be a companion for God?

Bob Hill said:
This is very clear. It's like John 3:14-17 “And as Moses lifted up the serpent in the wilderness, even so must the Son of Man be lifted up, 15 that whoever believes in Him should not perish but have eternal life. 16 For God so loved the world that He gave His only begotten Son, that whoever believes in Him should not perish but have everlasting life. 17 For God did not send His Son into the world to condemn the world, but that the world through Him might be saved." Of course I used that passage because everyone knows it. The real point is we must trust in Christ as our Savior.

No, the real point of the passage is that one must pisteue eis Christo[/I (believe into Christ, believe toward Christ). Believe is a terrible translation, however, and is only used because there are no comparable glosses in the English for pisteuo. Pisteuo is the basis for the term pistis (which we translate as faith). And since pistis is grounded in an action word, faith is also a terrible translation (for faith in English has nothing to do with action, and has, in fact, been put in opposition to action, i.e. the faith vs. works debate). Faithfulness is a much better translation for the word pistis. Pistis was a political term in the first century which signified faithfulness, fielty, and loyalty on top of trust and belief. Pistis, however, is not primarily an intellectual ascent (belief or trust). Pistis is the embodiment of obedience and faithfulness to a way of life which was announced through the euangelion (the good news). And the gospel of the Christians did not come first, for Cesar the Great had proclaimed a gospel of his own that went throughout the world, and was embodied as his armies commanded faithfulness to the idea of Rome (founded by the gods) and the Pax Romana (the peace of Rome brought through those very armies). The Christian gospel came in direct contrast to this other gospel, and was proclaimed as the true gospel, for Christ was raised from the dead, and his life now serves as the hope for us, that we too will be brought into God's salvation through Christ, and that even now the life of the Kingdom has been extended to us in Christ, as his Body (the ekklesia in this world that continues to bring his presence to a world in darkness.

Peace,
Michael
 

godrulz

Well-known member
Hall of Fame
seekinganswers said:
It is the rhetoric, not you, which makes me sick, Godrulz. It makes me sick because it claims an origin that is false. That is what my extended rant was about. Your rhetoric is not sourced in the early church but is grounded in the language and ideology of the Modern World.

So if you don't want to read my long post, I will shorten it. I've got to start with a question to you, however, and it will concern your definition of the term knowledge. When the scriptures speak about knowledge, in your opinion, is the act of knowing passive or active? By this I mean is knowledge the passive observation of events (empircal data) or is knowledge an active ordering of the world around us to allow us to react within? Is there such a thing as passive knowledge (simple data) or is knowledge always active (i.e. taking data and ordering it in a certain way)? I'm not saying that raw data does not exist, but I am asking you if raw data is ever treated by humanity as raw data? In essence I am asking you whether you believe the scientific method informs the scriptural view of knowledge or not.

Peace,
Michael

Both/and vs either/or. We are all trying to exegete the text in context. I do know that the first century language and mindset is not the same as the modern, North American mindset. This is why hermeneutics is important. What did the text mean to the original audience? What does it mean by way of application/principles to us (e.g. meat offered to idols is not a big deal now, but there are applicable principles to our culture such as social drinking)?
 

godrulz

Well-known member
Hall of Fame
Lighthouse said:
godrulz-
Sin is not what you think it is.


Cryptic. My main concern is that many think of sin as a substance passed on from Adam ('original sin') genetically. This would wrongly put it in the category of metaphysics. Sin is volitional, lawlessness, rebellion, selfishness, disobedience, etc. This puts it in the technical realm of morals (not self-righteous morals like you might jump to the conclusion).

Perhaps you can tell me what I think sin is and then what you think it is. They someone more objective can tell us what the Bible says it is. Harmartiology is the study of the doctrine of sin. It is not rocket science. What is the gist of adultery? Murder? Stealing? Idolatry? Pride? etc.
 

Mustard Seed

New member
godrulz said:
Harmartiology is the study of the doctrine of sin. It is not rocket science. What is the gist of adultery? Murder? Stealing? Idolatry? Pride? etc.

Sin is whatever God says it is at this moment. Thus the capacity for God to command the killing of babies and the unborn of an entire race. Also his capacity to have the likes of the Patriarchs, Moses and others to have multiple wives without being given the title, by God or their peers, of adulterers. And since everything is ultimately God's if he tells you to take something then you take it. Pride is the key attribute and motivation behind sin. Though it's not to be confused with aspiring to that which God has ordained and ordered. If God tells you to be perfect then He will provide a way. For you to seek that way to be obedient to, and show respect and love for, God is NOT Pride, rather obedience and submission. So while it's rather simple to say that sin is not rocket science it's a true statement in more ways than you realize. Rocket science is not regularly seen as being dictated by God from moment to moment as to what it is and is not relative to our possition.
 

godrulz

Well-known member
Hall of Fame
Mustard Seed said:
Sin is whatever God says it is at this moment. Thus the capacity for God to command the killing of babies and the unborn of an entire race. Also his capacity to have the likes of the Patriarchs, Moses and others to have multiple wives without being given the title, by God or their peers, of adulterers. And since everything is ultimately God's if he tells you to take something then you take it. Pride is the key attribute and motivation behind sin. Though it's not to be confused with aspiring to that which God has ordained and ordered. If God tells you to be perfect then He will provide a way. For you to seek that way to be obedient to, and show respect and love for, God is NOT Pride, rather obedience and submission. So while it's rather simple to say that sin is not rocket science it's a true statement in more ways than you realize. Rocket science is not regularly seen as being dictated by God from moment to moment as to what it is and is not relative to our possition.

God is not capricious. His moral law and absolutes are based on His unchanging being and character. He allowed divorce due to the hardness of their hearts, not because it was not sin or because it was right one year, but not the next. You fail to understand God's righteous character vs concessions that were tolerated for a time. One cannot defend polygamy as a universal norm or a changing doctrine. Just because a culture allows something, does not mean that it is meritorious or not sinful. Sin and righteousness are based on absolutes that are cross cultural/generational. The application may vary somewhat, but the principles do not. They are not based on relativism or a fickle God. A wrong doctrine of God leads to a wrong doctrine of sin.

God's commands to kill people are based on His righteous character. Justice, mercy, wrath, etc. come into play. It is not a matter of what is sin at the moment. It is a matter of God's sovereign right and necessity to judge when and how he wants. In the end, all these sins would be judged (on earth or after death). God does not sin in executing judgment, nor did Israel sin for putting to death those whom God commanded. You would have a case if it was acceptable to commit unwarranted murder in one dispensation, but wrong to do so in another. Murder is always wrong. Capital punishment is not murder. It is divine justice.
 

seekinganswers

New member
godrulz said:
Both/and vs either/or. We are all trying to exegete the text in context. I do know that the first century language and mindset is not the same as the modern, North American mindset. This is why hermeneutics is important. What did the text mean to the original audience? What does it mean by way of application/principles to us (e.g. meat offered to idols is not a big deal now, but there are applicable principles to our culture such as social drinking)?

Godrulz,

You didn't answer my question. What is the primary biblical understanding of knowledge? Is it primarily active in meaning or is it primarily passive? Does one know through observation, i.e. the scientific method (passively), or does one know through action, by ordering the world around them in a way that allows one to interact with the world in a certain way (actively)?

This becomes important for your discussion of what God "knows," for if knowledge is nothing more than a passive observation of the world around us, then you are quite correct, God doesn't "know" the future in this sense. But if knowledge cannot be primarily shaped through our understanding of the scientific method, if knowledge is something we bring about, than God can know the future, for knowledge is an active shapingof , not a passive interaction with the Creation. I am asking you whether God is active or passive in this world.

Peace,
Michael
 

Clete

Truth Smacker
Silver Subscriber
seekinganswers said:
So the Creation is nothing more than a giant playground with which God can amuse himself? Or even better, the Creation is a pet to be a companion for God?
You're a varitable fountain of logical fallacies. Mischaracterizing a position does nothing to refute it.

No, the real point of the passage is that one must pisteue eis Christo[/I (believe into Christ, believe toward Christ). Believe is a terrible translation, however, and is only used because there are no comparable glosses in the English for pisteuo. Pisteuo is the basis for the term pistis (which we translate as faith). And since pistis is grounded in an action word, faith is also a terrible translation (for faith in English has nothing to do with action, and has, in fact, been put in opposition to action, i.e. the faith vs. works debate). Faithfulness is a much better translation for the word pistis. Pistis was a political term in the first century which signified faithfulness, fielty, and loyalty on top of trust and belief. Pistis, however, is not primarily an intellectual ascent (belief or trust). Pistis is the embodiment of obedience and faithfulness to a way of life which was announced through the euangelion (the good news). And the gospel of the Christians did not come first, for Cesar the Great had proclaimed a gospel of his own that went throughout the world, and was embodied as his armies commanded faithfulness to the idea of Rome (founded by the gods) and the Pax Romana (the peace of Rome brought through those very armies). The Christian gospel came in direct contrast to this other gospel, and was proclaimed as the true gospel, for Christ was raised from the dead, and his life now serves as the hope for us, that we too will be brought into God's salvation through Christ, and that even now the life of the Kingdom has been extended to us in Christ, as his Body (the ekklesia in this world that continues to bring his presence to a world in darkness.

Peace,
Michael

You are actually engaging Bob Hill on the transalation of the Greek! :rotfl:

I think you're going to find you're in over your head!

This should be fun to watch!
 
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