Originally Posted by way 2 go
yes one sin was enough to have to make Atonement.
Yes, and that is true of the Gentiles as well.
Yes, also true in regard to the Gentiles.
Gentiles didn't have the law or worship the true God
did you forget circumcision \ the law was given to Jews to make
them a separate people
I did not prove your point. Instead, the sins of those who have faith are not imputed to them, as witnessed by what is said about one under the law who lived centuries ago:
"Even as David also describeth the blessedness of the man, unto whom God imputeth righteousness without works, Saying, Blessed are they whose iniquities are forgiven, and whose sins are covered. Blessed is the man to whom the Lord will not impute sin" (Ro.4:6-8).
David's sin of adultery & murder were forgiven
but not saul's sins
1Sa 16:14 Now the Spirit of the LORD departed from Saul, and a harmful spirit from the LORD tormented him.
And Paul's words which follow make it plain that David was not the only Jew who received this blessedness:Ro.4:9
not the Jews that came out of Egypt
Num 14:33 And your children shall wander in the wilderness forty years, and bear your whoredoms, until your carcases be wasted in the wilderness.
not this guy either
Num 15:33 And those who found him gathering sticks brought him to Moses and Aaron and to all the congregation.
Num 15:34 They put him in custody, because it had not been made clear what should be done to him.
Num 15:35 And the LORD said to Moses, "The man shall be put to death; all the congregation shall stone him with stones outside the camp."
Are Paul's words not good enough for you? Will you consider believing what the Lord Jesus said to those who lived under the law?:
"Very truly I tell you, whoever hears my word and believes him who sent me has eternal life and will not be judged but has crossed over from death to life" (Jn.5:24).
If we cannot trust what He said there then who can we trust?
had Jesus come in the flesh in Moses time :nono:
then it does not apply to people in Moses time Mat 13:17
But since Paul wrote those words in the first century it had to apply to the Jews living at that time. And besides that, Paul makes it plain that those who were then living under the law were saved by grace through faith:
Rom 4:16 That is why it depends on faith, in order that the promise may rest on grace and be guaranteed to all his offspring—not only to the adherent of the law but also to the one who shares the faith of Abraham, who is the father of us all,
does not say those under the didn't have to keep the law
those under the law had to keep the law with works of cutting off of the flesh.
those of us without the law don't have to have works
Rom 3:28 For we hold that one is justified by faith apart from works of the law. (for us today not for Moses )
Moses had to have works
Exo 4:24 At a lodging place on the way the LORD met him and sought to put him to death.
Exo 4:25 Then Zipporah took a flint and cut off her son's foreskin and touched Moses' feet with it and said, "Surely you are a bridegroom of blood to me!"
I do not think that you have a proper understanding in regard to the principle of "grace" whereby all men are saved.
Otherwise, you would not continue to insist that the Jews could not be saved apart from doing works of one kind or another.
Jews had to continue in the faith & keep the law that was their covenant
and it is by grace that we all don't get what we deserve when we deserve it
