Theology Club: Bob Enyart's "The Plot" is he right?

musterion

Well-known member
We need to get on the same page; the scriptures being the final authority.

That's very easy to say but - just being honest here - it really says nothing. If you asked a Pentecostal, a So. Baptist, an indy/fudie Baptist, an AoG, a CoC, a Presbyterian, a Methodist, a Lutheran, a MAD, an Acts 28, or your garden variety non-denom evangelical "How do you suggest we all get on the same page, Scripturally speaking?" each will offer varying (sometimes irreconcilably contradictory) interpretive systems and frameworks which they'd insist elevates Scripture as "the final authority" while refuting everyone else's system as false.

That's the way it is but the problem is obvious: since God does not author confusion among believers, they cannot all be correct. Someone HAS to be wrong.

So which one of them is right, if anyone is?
 

heir

TOL Subscriber
That's very easy to say but - just being honest here - it really says nothing.
I am speaking to those who are "MAD", as they say. This thread is titled "Bob Enyart's "The Plot" is he right?". This is a place for "Acts 9 (or MidActs) Dispensationalism acknowledges the scriptural presentation of the dispensation of grace having begun with, not before, Paul; and its adherents accept the admonishment of Jesus Christ Himself that members of the Body of Christ follow Paul as he followed Christ."

And yes, I assume everyone would like to follow Paul and be in agreement with the scriptures and each other although there are disagreements. Paul knew there must be also heresies among us (1 Corinthians 11:19 KJV) and it didn't stop him from beseeching us to speak the same thing, and that there be no divisions among you; but that ye be perfectly joined together in the same mind and in the same judgment (1 Corinthians 1:10 KJV). If we don't discuss the disagreements we can't exactly get to the same page, now can we?

The thread is here. I take issue with some of the things in The Plot. I replied. I hope the discussion takes off. It's been a long time since TP was written and there are problems in it that I don't think have ever been addressed. I'm not about to hijack this thread. I think it an important one.

see ya' round
 
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Dialogos

Well-known member
I'm not sure why people struggle with the fact that there is more than one gospel in the Bible: The gospel of the kingdom, the gospel of God, the gospel of Christ, the gospel of the circumcision, the gospel of the uncircumcision, the gospel of the grace of God...I'm sure I missed a couple. The angel preaches a gospel in Revelation. I don't know what that is called, but it's a gospel of judgment. There's more than one gospel in just this one verse (Galatians 2:7 KJV).
And there also appear to be a plethora of kingdoms in the bible as well.

The kingdom of God, the kingdom of heaven, the kingdom of the beloved Son, the kingdom of David, and the Kingdom of Christ and God (not sure how that works since each of these must be different kingdoms and all.

:rolleyes:

Which one of these kingdoms will be in affect when Jesus returns? Will it be the kingdom of God, or the Kingdom of our father David? When does the Kingdom of Christ and God (Eph 5:5) come? What's the difference between the kingdom of heaven and the kingdom of God?
When does the kingdom of our father David get inaugurated (Mark 10:10)? In the New Heavens and New Earth, which kingdom will that be?

So many kingdoms and yet they must all be distinct because scripture calls them by different names, right?


:nono:

Dispensationalism is based on the faulty application of an erroneous hermeneutic on the word "gospel" that applied to any other word in the bible demonstrates how faulty is that hermeneutic.
 

musterion

Well-known member
I am speaking to those who are "MAD", as they say. This thread is titled "Bob Enyart's "The Plot" is he right?". This is a place for "Acts 9 (or MidActs) Dispensationalism acknowledges the scriptural presentation of the dispensation of grace having begun with, not before, Paul; and its adherents accept the admonishment of Jesus Christ Himself that members of the Body of Christ follow Paul as he followed Christ."

And yes, I assume everyone would like to follow Paul and be in agreement with the scriptures and each other although there are disagreements. Paul knew there must be also heresies among us (1 Corinthians 11:19 KJV) and it didn't stop him from beseeching us to speak the same thing, and that there be no divisions among you; but that ye be perfectly joined together in the same mind and in the same judgment (1 Corinthians 1:10 KJV). If we don't discuss the disagreements we can't exactly get to the same page, now can we?

The thread is here. I take issue with some of the things in The Plot. I replied. I hope the discussion takes off. It's been a long time since TP was written and there are problems in it that I don't think have ever been addressed. I'm not about to hijack this thread. I think it an important one.

see ya' round

Sorry, I didn't see where you were asking it as a rhetorical question. I meant no offense.
 

musterion

Well-known member
Of the central premise.

That there are two separate gospels, one to the circumcised and one to the gentiles.

That right there may be your problem. If by that you mean, "dispensationalists believe that there are NOW two separate gospels," you're arguing with a straw man because NO knowledgeable dispensationalist of ANY stripe believes that. John Hagee reportedly does and for that reason he does not count, imo, as a knowledgeable dispensationalist; I'm not entirely sure how much of a dispensationalist he is at all, to tell the truth.

If, on the other hand, you mean "dispensationalists believe there were two separate gospels running concurrently for a period of time," then yes, that we believe, because that's exactly what Paul wrote. If you have a problem with that, take it up with the One who inspired him.
 

Lighthouse

The Dark Knight
Gold Subscriber
Hall of Fame
The risk of writing any book is that you can get some things wrong and false premises lead to false conclusions. The Plot is no exception to that. It has problems. And since I know you will ask, a couple of them off the top of my head are:

it sees all Gentiles in the Bible as the same
What, exactly, do you mean by that?
 

way 2 go

Well-known member
In The Plot Bob uses the term, "Covenant of Grace". Can someone define it?
page 48 The plot

Peter was of the covenant of the law

Act 10:34 So Peter opened his mouth and said: "Truly I understand that God shows no partiality,
Act 10:35 but in every nation anyone who fears him and does what is right is acceptable to him.

Paul preached the Covenant of Grace

Rom 4:5 And to the one who does not work but believes in him who justifies the ungodly, his faith is counted as righteousness,
 

way 2 go

Well-known member
Were there Gentiles called Jews?
proselyte


I'll get right to it.

Romans 11:19-22 KJV Thou wilt say then, The branches were broken off, that I might be graffed in. 20 Well; because of unbelief they were broken off, and thou standest by faith. Be not highminded, but fear: 21 For if God spared not the natural branches, take heed lest he also spare not thee. 22 Behold therefore the goodness and severity of God: on them which fell, severity; but toward thee, goodness, if thou continue in his goodness: otherwise thou also shalt be cut off.

Romans 11:19-22 KJV cannot be speaking about us yet The Plot (Bob) says it is on or around pages 57-60 and again on page 69 (and no doubt, elsewhere). How could it possibly be speaking of us saved and sealed members of the Body of Christ? It can't be! We can't be cut off! When we believe on the Lord Jesus Christ; that Christ died for our sins, was buried and rose again on the third day (1 Corinthians 15:1-4 KJV) we are saved and sealed with that Holy Spirit of promise (the earnest of our inheritance) unto the day of redemption (Ephesians 1:13-14 KJV, Ephesians 4:30 KJV)


Rom 11:11 So I ask, did they stumble in order that they might fall? By no means! Rather through their trespass salvation has come to the Gentiles, so as to make Israel jealous.

we are gentiles, it is talking about us
So what was going on in Romans 11?

At that "present time" when Paul wrote the letter to the Romans there was a remnant according to the election of grace which God foreknew (Romans 11:1-6 KJV) would believe the gospel of Christ (1 Corinthians 15:1-4 KJV) and be established into the Body of Christ.

The Romans had a standing in the olive tree by faith (faith in the gospel of God Romans 1:1-4 KJV). It was a faith praised by Paul (Romans 1:8 KJV) but it was not the mutual faith of them and Paul (Romans 1:12 KJV). These (at least one that Paul points out to use as an example) were resting in the law making their boast of God (Romans 2:17 KJV) and the tree was coming down (so to speak). Israel had fallen (Romans 11:11 KJV) and these Romans needed to continue in the goodness of God or they too would be cut off (Romans 11:22 KJV).

There was only one way to continue in the goodness of God and that was to be established into the Body of Christ by Paul's my gospel, and the preaching of Jesus Christ according to the revelation of the mystery which was kept secret since the world began, but now (at that time) was made manifest (Romans 16:25-27 KJV). That's why Paul "longed to see" them (Romans 1:11 KJV). He was "ready to preach the gospel to you that are in Rome also" (Romans 1:15-17 KJV! And all through the Acts period, we see Paul gathering the remnant into the Body.

That is the context of Romans 11 and the "grafted in". It has nothing to do with you, me or anyone else today in the dispensation of the grace of God (Ephesians 3:1-6 KJV)! You can't be grafted in without the possibility of being cut off. They're connected. By identifying us as "grafted in", The Plot (Bob) and those who repeat it are really telling others they can be cut off. It just might lead someone into thinking there is something that they need to do to be saved or stay saved as the text of Romans 11:19-22 KJV can be (and is often) twisted and used to manipulate people into making a fair shew in the flesh (Galatians 6:12-13 KJV). It should be dropped/edited out of The Plot. It's untrue and dangerous. Hence my comment:

how i read it is:

God cut off Israel
he could end the time of the Gentiles at ANYtime

Rom 11:22 Note then the kindness and the severity of God: severity toward those who have fallen, but God's kindness to you, provided you continue in his kindness. Otherwise you too will be cut off.

he is not talking about individuals losing their salvation.

Of course not. I never said that or even implied it. They need trust the Lord believing the gospel of Christ (1 Corinthians 15:1-4 KJV). I'm having trouble finding it declared as the power of God unto salvation to every one that believeth in The Plot. It may very well be there, but I missed it. :idunno: Do you have a page number?

did not use those verses in The Plot


I'm not sure why you said this here, but...were there no circumcised Gentiles? What were they called, again? Who are the "we" "who first trusted in Christ" (Ephesians 1:12 KJV) and the "ye" that "also trusted" (Ephesians 1:13 KJV)? IOW, who were the two groups in the one Body?

circumcised kept the law
(Kingdom)

uncircumcised - no law
(body)

circumcised Gentiles is a proselyte

"we" = Jews and gentiles under grace apart from the law Rom 4:5
not peter and the 11
 

musterion

Well-known member

Re: Ironside (2nd link)

I do not judge the man's salvation for I do not doubt it, but Ironside's conduct during his life was hypocritical. In his younger days, he'd been just as "hyperdispensational" as Stam and O'Hair, and I believe was a personal acquaintance with C.R. Stam.

Later, though, once Ironside got a good church gig (that's how it appears, timing-wise) he publicly took issue with the mid-Acts position, which was rather well-known at the time.

Now that's fine as far as it goes...people change views, sometimes drastically so.

The problem is that Ironside wouldn't acknowledge that he had EVER been mid-Acts (doing so then and now will kill a pastoral career among denominational brethren), even though Ironside's own books and articles were still available that proved he'd been M.A.D.

So it was the concept of M.A.D. he attacked without ever really addressing what he himself had written and had once believed.

This inconsistency was noticed at the time by puzzled people nationwide, so Stam and others called him on his hypocrisy. As a result, Ironside got...shall we say...testy.

All this and more, including Stam's personal exchanges with Ironside, is detailed in Stam's THE CONTROVERSY/HOLDING FAST THE FAITHFUL WORD.

Read ch. IV here, decide for yourself:

http://www.bijbel.nl/_files/StamI20.pd
 

musterion

Well-known member
Bob, in The Plot sees all Gentiles as the same. For example: "Up until the Lord cast away Israel, the Gentiles (all the other nations of the world) were far from God."

I disagree.

Pardon my replying to you again (if I'm ignored so be it) but the key word there is NATIONS. There were Gentile individuals who devoutly sought after God but (a) as best I can tell the ones we know of seemed to have had exposure to the O.T. Scriptures of the Jews and (b) if one of them wanted to BECOME right with God, they had to become proselytes.

So Bob's statement is biblically correct: the nations were all far from God and had been since Babel. Yet there were occasional individuals from those nations who, to some degree, recognized the revealed Truth when they saw it.

Now that Israel, too, as been cast aside in unbelief, ALL nations are basically Gentile in that God has NO favored nation today and deals with people on one basis only: individually through His Son, and through only one Gospel, the Gospel of grace.

(other MADs, feel free to correct any error in the above)
 

Dialogos

Well-known member
If, on the other hand, you mean "dispensationalists believe there were two separate gospels running concurrently for a period of time," then yes, that we believe, because that's exactly what Paul wrote.

Where in the bible does it say there were two separate gospels running concurrently?
 

musterion

Well-known member
Where in the bible does it say there were two separate gospels running concurrently?

Read Galatians 2:2-9.

If that doesn't do it for you, try this:

Keeping Galatians 2:2-9 in mind, re-read the earlier chapters of Acts. Consider all that had been going on for some time in Jerusalem with the circumcision apostles. Give special regard to what they had been preaching.

Then consider what in the meantime had happened with Paul, unbeknownst to the circumcision apostles. Here again, pay special regard to what Paul says he had been given by Christ to preach, referring to Acts as necessary.

I know you'll figure it out. You may not LIKE what you see, but it's all there.
 

heir

TOL Subscriber
page 48 The plot

Paul preached the Covenant of Grace

Rom 4:5 And to the one who does not work but believes in him who justifies the ungodly, his faith is counted as righteousness,
Romans 4 speaks of Abraham's faith (a type of Christ "staggered not at the promise" Romans 4:20 KJV,) and righteousness imputed. I see no "Covenant of Grace" which we are under nor do I find the term in the Bible. We are under grace, but not a covenant.

page 48 The plot

Peter was of the covenant of the law

Act 10:34 So Peter opened his mouth and said: "Truly I understand that God shows no partiality,
Act 10:35 but in every nation anyone who fears him and does what is right is acceptable to him.
I'm glad you brought Peter up.

The Plot makes it sound as if the apostles preached the same gospel as Paul preached with it's language of "the gospel" (as if there were only one).

"The apostles preach the gospel to the men of Israel (Acts 2&3)..."

"Only then, after Israel's utter rejection, did God raise up Paul (Acts 9) as Apostle to the Gentiles to bring the gospel directly to the uncircumcised."
What gospel did Peter preach in Acts 2&3? What was the message?

What gospel did Paul preach? What was the message?

Weren't those gospels different?

Wasn't Paul's my gospel a mystery before it was revealed to and through him?

Paul was not only the "Apostle to the Gentiles". More importantly, Paul was the apostle of the Gentiles! Romans 11:13 KJV No other apostle can make that claim.

The Plot makes it sound like Peter was wrong in Acts 10 for preaching what he did to Cornelius as if Peter knew Paul's gospel. Peter didn't know of Paul's gospel in Acts 10. Peter went kicking and screaming to Cornelius' house out of order. Peter was not some bumbling idiot who "momentarily forgot" or "misapplied the law" when he preached (Acts 10:35 KJV) to Cornelius as The Plot implies. Peter preached what he was supposed to (Acts 10:35 KJV, Acts 10:43 KJV). Notice also that there were two baptisms that happened there (Acts 10:44-45 KJV, and Acts 10:47-48 KJV); neither of which were by one Spirit into the one Body (1 Corinthians 12:13 KJV-just in case someone would like to claim Corne as the pattern;which he clearly isn't 1 Timothy 1:13-16 KJV). Peter was sent to Cornelius for a purpose; to later validate Paul going to the Gentiles in that the door to certain Gentiles was opened by God proven by Peter's testimony.

It wasn't until Acts 15, when Paul "went up by revelation, and communicated unto them" (James, Cephas and John) "that gospel" that Paul preached "among the Gentiles". It was then (not before) that Peter saw that the gospel of the uncircumcision was committed unto Paul. It was then (not before) that Peter “perceived the grace” that was given unto Paul!

Galatians 2:1-2 KJV Then fourteen years after I went up again to Jerusalem with Barnabas, and took Titus with me also. 2 And I went up by revelation, and communicated unto them that gospel which I preach among the Gentiles, but privately to them which were of reputation, lest by any means I should run, or had run, in vain.

Galatians 2:6-8 KJV But of these who seemed to be somewhat, (whatsoever they were, it maketh no matter to me: God accepteth no man's person:) for they who seemed to be somewhat in conference added nothing to me: 7 But contrariwise, when they saw that the gospel of the uncircumcision was committed unto me, as the gospel of the circumcision was unto Peter; 8 (For he that wrought effectually in Peter to the apostleship of the circumcision, the same was mighty in me toward the Gentiles:) 9 And when James, Cephas, and John, who seemed to be pillars, perceived the grace that was given unto me, they gave to me and Barnabas the right hands of fellowship; that we should go unto the heathen, and they unto the circumcision.
 
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heir

TOL Subscriber
proselyte
The question was: Were there Gentiles called Jews? Your answer was "proselyte". That's right and we see a Gentile here in Romans that Paul is zeroing in on. He's "called a jew".

Romans 2:17 KJV Behold, thou art called a Jew, and restest in the law, and makest thy boast of God,

There was only one way for a Gentile to be called a Jew and that would have been by circumcision (Romans 2:25 KJV).

So we have Gentiles called Jews in Romans.


Rom 11:11 So I ask, did they stumble in order that they might fall? By no means! Rather through their trespass salvation has come to the Gentiles, so as to make Israel jealous.

we are gentiles, it is talking about us
Although Paul makes mention of Gentiles such as we in Romans 1:14 KJV, he had yet to let the cat out of the bag (2 Corinthians 12:1-6 KJV). He had not yet been sent far hence (Acts 22:21 KJV). There were some out of Israel that would believe (Romans 11:14 KJV). A remnant which God foreknew (Romans 11:5 KJV). To provoke the Jews to jealousy, Paul was sent to "the Gentiles" (Romans 11:11 KJV). There is more than one Gentile that Paul was sent to (and more than one sending Acts 26:16-17 KJV, for that matter). That's why I posed this question to you:

"Were there Gentiles who had hope and were in the promise and others who had no hope and were strangers from the covenants of promise in the Bible?"

I'm still waiting for your reply.


how i read it is:

God cut off Israel
he could end the time of the Gentiles at ANYtime

That's not what the text says. You can believe it means what it says. Read it carefully. It does not say God "could end the time of the Gentiles at ANYtime". You got that idea from somewhere else.

Romans 11:19-22 KJV Thou wilt say then, The branches were broken off, that I might be graffed in. 20 Well; because of unbelief they were broken off, and thou standest by faith. Be not highminded, but fear: 21 For if God spared not the natural branches, take heed lest he also spare not thee. 22 Behold therefore the goodness and severity of God: on them which fell, severity; but toward thee, goodness, if thou continue in his goodness: otherwise thou also shalt be cut off.

And about the graffing in; in The Plot Bob writes that we're "grafted into Christ", but it is clear from the word of God that these Romans were graffed in to the olive tree (Romans 11:24 KJV) and it doesn't take too long to figure out who the tree represents. It's Israel. And of course, that is what these Gentiles in Romans 11 had a standing in before they had ever heard Paul's my gospel that would establish them into the Body which was the purpose of Paul writing to them in the first place (Romans 1:17 KJV, Romans 1:10-12 KJV, Romans 1:15 KJV).

We weren't grafted in to anything. Everyone who has ever been identified into the Body of Christ was/is baptized by one Spirit into one Body 1 Corinthians 12:13 KJV). It is a baptism (identification) into His death (Romans 6:3-4 KJV). It is a baptism into Christ (Galatians 3:27 KJV). That's baptized not grafted.


You posted Romans 11:22 KJV and then said,

he is not talking about individuals losing their salvation.
First of all, no one in the Bible lost their salvation. Israel had to endure to the end to be saved (Matthew 24:13 KJV). Those in the Body of Christ are saved and sealed the moment we trust the Lord believing the gospel of Christ (1 Corinthians 15:1-4 KJV, Ephesians 1:13-14 KJV).
I believe Romans 11:22 KJV means what it says, as it says it and to whom it says it. And this is just another reason to study with the KJB as opposed to the (per)versions. Thee and thou are singular in a King James Bible.|

Paul is zeroing in on one person. It's likely the same "o man" who is "called a jew" from chapter 2.

Romans 11:22 KJV Behold therefore the goodness and severity of God: on them which fell, severity; but toward thee, goodness, if thou continue in his goodness: otherwise thou also shalt be cut off.

Remember, continuing in the goodness of God did not mean doing something. It means being established into the BoC by Paul's my gospel! These Romans had never heard it! They were called to be saints (Romans 1:17 KJV).

did not use those verses in The Plot
:sigh: What a complete waste of time; to write over 300 pages and refrain from declaring the gospel of Christ (1 Corinthians 15:1-4) as the power of God unto salvation to every one that believeth.

circumcised kept the law
(Kingdom)

uncircumcised - no law
(body)

circumcised Gentiles is a proselyte

"we" = Jews and gentiles under grace apart from the law Rom 4:5
not peter and the 11
You format your answers in a way that makes it difficult to reply. It's unclear as to which question you are addressing in some of your responses.

I would agree that the "we" (Ephesians 1:12 KJV) is "Jews and gentiles", but it's more than that. Who then is the "ye" (Ephesians 1:13 KJV)? Are you saying that the two groups in the one Body is 1. Jews and 2. Gentiles?
 
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way 2 go

Well-known member
Romans 4 speaks of Abraham's faith (a type of Christ "staggered not at the promise" Romans 4:20 KJV,) and righteousness imputed. I see no "Covenant of Grace" which we are under nor do I find the term in the Bible. We are under grace, but not a covenant.

the new covenant that Jesus made was faith works grace
Mat 26:28 Mat 19:17

the new dispensation (new house rule) in the new covenant given to Paul is faith and grace apart from the law
Rom 4:5

are you saying that Jesus new covenant had no grace?


I'm glad you brought Peter up.

The Plot makes it sound as if the apostles preached the same gospel as Paul preached with it's language of "the gospel" (as if there were only one).


:nono:


What gospel did Peter preach in Acts 2&3? What was the message?
to the Jews

Acts 3:16 ...by faith in his name...
Acts 3:19 Repent therefore, and turn back(keep the law), that your sins may be blotted out

What gospel did Paul preach? What was the message?

Rom 4:5 And to the one who does not work but believes in him who justifies the ungodly, his faith is counted as righteousness,

Weren't those gospels different?
yes

Wasn't Paul's my gospel a mystery before it was revealed to and through him?
yes

Paul was not only the "Apostle to the Gentiles". More importantly, Paul was the apostle of the Gentiles! Romans 11:13 KJV No other apostle can make that claim.

no disciple wanted to


The Plot makes it sound like Peter was wrong in Acts 10 for preaching what he did to Cornelius as if Peter knew Paul's gospel.

no

Peter didn't know of Paul's gospel in Acts 10.
true

Peter went kicking and screaming to Cornelius'
true

house out of order.
no
Peter was not some bumbling idiot who "momentarily forgot" or "misapplied the law" when he preached (Acts 10:35 KJV) to Cornelius as The Plot implies.
where does the plot imply that ?

Peter preached what he was supposed to (Acts 10:35 KJV, Acts 10:43 KJV). Notice also that there were two baptisms that happened there (Acts 10:44-45 KJV, and Acts 10:47-48 KJV); neither of which were by one Spirit into the one Body (1 Corinthians 12:13 KJV-just in case someone would like to claim Corne as the pattern;which he clearly isn't 1 Timothy 1:13-16 KJV).
so

Peter was sent to Cornelius for a purpose; to later validate Paul going to the Gentiles in that the door to certain Gentiles was opened by God proven by Peter's testimony.
to show peter that there was new dispensation ,gentiles saved apart from the law.
so when Paul showed up Peter affirmed Paul's ministry.

seems we agree



It wasn't until Acts 15, when Paul "went up by revelation, and communicated unto them" (James, Cephas and John) "that gospel" that Paul preached "among the Gentiles". It was then (not before) that Peter saw that the gospel of the uncircumcision was committed unto Paul. It was then (not before) that Peter “perceived the grace” that was given unto Paul!

who did the body of Christ begin with ?


Galatians 2:1-2 KJV Then fourteen years after I went up again to Jerusalem with Barnabas, and took Titus with me also. 2 And I went up by revelation, and communicated unto them that gospel which I preach among the Gentiles, but privately to them which were of reputation, lest by any means I should run, or had run, in vain.

Galatians 2:6-8 KJV But of these who seemed to be somewhat, (whatsoever they were, it maketh no matter to me: God accepteth no man's person:) for they who seemed to be somewhat in conference added nothing to me: 7 But contrariwise, when they saw that the gospel of the uncircumcision was committed unto me, as the gospel of the circumcision was unto Peter; 8 (For he that wrought effectually in Peter to the apostleship of the circumcision, the same was mighty in me toward the Gentiles:) 9 And when James, Cephas, and John, who seemed to be pillars, perceived the grace that was given unto me, they gave to me and Barnabas the right hands of fellowship; that we should go unto the heathen, and they unto the circumcision.

what is your point?
 
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