ECT Why Was Paul Baptized With Water?

turbosixx

New member
Hi and in Acts 19:2 Paul meets , since having believed did yo receive HOLY SPIRIT and this is the BAPTISM WITH [POWER AT PENTECOST in Acts 2 !!

Baptism WITH the HS only happened twice and each time it was a SPECIAL situation.

And in verse 6 , Paul LAID HANDS UPON THEM , THE HOLY SPIRIT came upon them and these 12 disciples spake in TONGUES and were PROPHESYING , just like those in Acts 2 !!

This is NOT just like Acts 2. Laying hands is NOT how they received the HS. Look at the details of HOW the 12 received the HS in Acts 2. It only happened TWICE and Acts 2 is the first time.

Acts 19 is just like Acts 8 not Acts 2.
Acts 8:16 for he had not yet fallen on any of them, but they had only been baptized in the name of the Lord Jesus. 17 Then they laid their hands on them and they received the Holy Spirit.
Acts 19:6 And when Paul had laid his hands on them, the Holy Spirit came on them, and they began speaking in tongues and prophesying.
 
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turbosixx

New member
BAPTISM / BAPTISMA , and Baptisma means by John the BAPTIZER !!

What reference material are you using to get the idea BAPTISMA means baptizer?


It means the ceremonial rite of baptism not baptizer.
STRONGS NT 908: βάπτισμα
βάπτισμα, -τος, τό, (βαπτίζω), a word peculiar to N. T. and ecclesiastical writings, immersion, submersion;
1. used tropically of calamities and afflictions with which one is quite overwhelmed: Matthew 20:22f Rec.; Mark 10:38; Luke 12:50 (see βαπτίζω, I. 3).
2. of John's baptism, that purificatory rite by which men on confessing their sins were bound to a spiritual reformation, obtained the pardon of their past sins and became qualified for the benefits of the Messiah's kingdom soon to be set up: Matthew 3:7; Matthew 21:25; Mark 11:30; Luke 7:29; Luke 20:4; Acts 1:22; Acts 10:37; Acts 18:25; [Acts 19:3]; βάπτ. μετανοίας, binding to repentance [Winer's Grammar, 188 (177)], Mark 1:4; Luke 3:3; Acts 13:24; Acts 19:4.


Baptizo v. is the action
Baptisma n. is the thing


There was NO WATER in Acts 19:1-7 !!

Acts 10:48 And he commanded them to be baptized in the name of Jesus Christ.
Acts 19:5 On hearing this, they were baptized in the name of the Lord Jesus.

The context tells us Acts 10 is water so how can the exact same "baptism in the name of Jesus" be water in one and not in the other?

If it's not water then what is it and HOW is it done?
V.5 is Baptizo
 
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Clete

Truth Smacker
Silver Subscriber
Fair enough. I guess we've done all we can do. I do appreciate your time.

I would like to leave you with one thought from my perspective hoping you will consider it. I believe Satan has deceived many using God's own word by changing it ever so slightly just as he did with Eve. God tells us baptism in the name of Jesus is how Christians are made, Matt. 28:19-20 and how our sins are washed away, Acts 22:16, and how we are added to the church, Acts 2:41. Satan is doing his very best to convince us that's not true.

God Bless

So now my doctrine is of Satan!

Why? What's the evidence that it's of Satan?

Because you have proof-texts!

Unbelievable.


The bible is not a smorgasbord board of doctrines where one gets to belly up to the buffet and pick their doctrine's a la carte in whatever quantities desired. But that's precisely what people who formulate their doctrine based on proof-texting are doing. If you line up ten different average Christians and ask each of them what their position is on ten different doctrinal issues, none of them will have identical positions on all ten issues, except maybe by accident. And proof-texting is the reason why.

Go buy a book on any disputed issue. We're talking here about water baptism but it doesn't have to be that. It could be on eternal security or tithing or sabbath observance or pretty much whatever, just pick a topic and buy one book arguing one side and another book arguing the opposite side. Both books will have a similar format.

First, both books are extremely likely to mention how Satan has tricked a huge portion of the Christian population into believing that the truths contained therein are false. Both books will make that same exact claim.
Then, the proof-texting will begin. The author, regardless of which side of which issue he's taken up to defend, will have a list of proof texts and a list of problem texts. What are proof texts for one will be the problem texts for the other. Both authors will write a book that spend nearly all it's pages focusing and expounding upon the their proof texts, explaining how plain they are in their language and how easily understood they are to anyone by simply reading them and taking them to mean what they seem to say.

Then, usually 80% or more through the book, well past what the average reader makes it through, they'll turn to the problem texts. This, of course, is assuming that they ever bother to mention the problem texts at all, which many don't. But, assuming a mostly intellectually honest author has written the book, eventually they will deal with at least some of the problem texts by explain how they don't mean what they seem to mean by a simple surface reading of the text. This is done by using several techniques but usually the phrase "out of context" is used in conjunction with a mention of the original language and how this or that version of the bible got the translation wrong, and then, of course, a mention or two of Satan's deceptive powers, yada, yada, yada.

This is how virtually all popular theology books go. It doesn't matter what the topic is or who wrote it. It's pretty much always the same ridiculous format.

Interestingly, the proof texts and problems texts for most issues, regardless of whether they seem to be related in any way or not, very often fall along the same lines. One set will be almost entirely contained in the writings of Paul while the other set is everywhere else (i.e. the Old Testament, the Gospels, Acts, and Hebrews-Revelation). With a whole lot of disputed issues, this line is quite stark but the issue of water baptism one of those where you find some significant cross over. Which, as I said before, is the reason I don't judge people one way or the other in regards to the issue unless they just take it way too far and start suggesting that people who don't get wet cannot be saved, which is just utterly indefensible.

It is worth mentioning, however, that since my doctrine is not based on proof-texting but rather on a big picture view if the scripture, my doctrine is impervious to the proof-texting tricks found in 90% of modern Christian literature. In fact, I not only get to take pretty well any passage of scripture to mean what it seems to mean but I basically do not have problem texts on nearly any issue. Not only that, but I can understand issues like water baptism, where the proof/problem text line is less clearly drawn, on an intuitive level. It's perfectly obvious which side of such issues one should be on when you acquire a top down, big picture view and understanding of not only what happened through the bible (particularly during the Acts period) but why those things happened. When you see the big picture, the details become MUCH easier.

In short, good doctrine is always built from the top down, not the bottom up. That is, from the big picture down to the details, not the other way around.

Clete
 

turbosixx

New member
So now my doctrine is of Satan!

Why? What's the evidence that it's of Satan?

Because you have proof-texts!

Unbelievable.


The bible is not a smorgasbord board of doctrines where one gets to belly up to the buffet and pick their doctrine's a la carte in whatever quantities desired. But that's precisely what people who formulate their doctrine based on proof-texting are doing. If you line up ten different average Christians and ask each of them what their position is on ten different doctrinal issues, none of them will have identical positions on all ten issues, except maybe by accident. And proof-texting is the reason why.

Go buy a book on any disputed issue. We're talking here about water baptism but it doesn't have to be that. It could be on eternal security or tithing or sabbath observance or pretty much whatever, just pick a topic and buy one book arguing one side and another book arguing the opposite side. Both books will have a similar format.

First, both books are extremely likely to mention how Satan has tricked a huge portion of the Christian population into believing that the truths contained therein are false. Both books will make that same exact claim.
Then, the proof-texting will begin. The author, regardless of which side of which issue he's taken up to defend, will have a list of proof texts and a list of problem texts. What are proof texts for one will be the problem texts for the other. Both authors will write a book that spend nearly all it's pages focusing and expounding upon the their proof texts, explaining how plain they are in their language and how easily understood they are to anyone by simply reading them and taking them to mean what they seem to say.

Then, usually 80% or more through the book, well past what the average reader makes it through, they'll turn to the problem texts. This, of course, is assuming that they ever bother to mention the problem texts at all, which many don't. But, assuming a mostly intellectually honest author has written the book, eventually they will deal with at least some of the problem texts by explain how they don't mean what they seem to mean by a simple surface reading of the text. This is done by using several techniques but usually the phrase "out of context" is used in conjunction with a mention of the original language and how this or that version of the bible got the translation wrong, and then, of course, a mention or two of Satan's deceptive powers, yada, yada, yada.

This is how virtually all popular theology books go. It doesn't matter what the topic is or who wrote it. It's pretty much always the same ridiculous format.

Interestingly, the proof texts and problems texts for most issues, regardless of whether they seem to be related in any way or not, very often fall along the same lines. One set will be almost entirely contained in the writings of Paul while the other set is everywhere else (i.e. the Old Testament, the Gospels, Acts, and Hebrews-Revelation). With a whole lot of disputed issues, this line is quite stark but the issue of water baptism one of those where you find some significant cross over. Which, as I said before, is the reason I don't judge people one way or the other in regards to the issue unless they just take it way too far and start suggesting that people who don't get wet cannot be saved, which is just utterly indefensible.

It is worth mentioning, however, that since my doctrine is not based on proof-texting but rather on a big picture view if the scripture, my doctrine is impervious to the proof-texting tricks found in 90% of modern Christian literature. In fact, I not only get to take pretty well any passage of scripture to mean what it seems to mean but I basically do not have problem texts on nearly any issue. Not only that, but I can understand issues like water baptism, where the proof/problem text line is less clearly drawn, on an intuitive level. It's perfectly obvious which side of such issues one should be on when you acquire a top down, big picture view and understanding of not only what happened through the bible (particularly during the Acts period) but why those things happened. When you see the big picture, the details become MUCH easier.

In short, good doctrine is always built from the top down, not the bottom up. That is, from the big picture down to the details, not the other way around.

Clete

Thanks for your comments.

I totally agree. You ask 10 people, you get 10 different views. Intelligent people too, I'm sure there's a PhD supporting each one.

I personally could care less about any book a "man" has written. I do not read them. I whole-heartedly believe God has given us a book that we can understand if we read it with open eyes. Paul tells us all scripture is ”profitable for teaching, for reproof, for correction, and for training in righteousness, 17 that the man of God may be complete, equipped for every good work”
I believe what the bible says and not what it seems to say.

You talk as if “proof-texting” is bad. If we can’t turn to scripture for truth, where do we turn? I can see the flaws when certain people use certain passages as proof-text. Many times what they're missing/can't see/overlooking is right there in the passage. Context is very important. The Spirit has revealed the truth to us in scripture, we have to read it spiritually minded.

I’m curious what your “big picture” view is. I don’t see how it’s possible your doctrine fits into the big picture.
 
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Clete

Truth Smacker
Silver Subscriber
Thanks for your comments.

I totally agree. You ask 10 people, you get 10 different views. Intelligent people too, I'm sure there's a PhD supporting each one.

I personally could care less about any book a "man" has written. I do not read them. I whole-heartedly believe God has given us a book that we can understand if we read it with open eyes. Paul tells us all scripture is ”profitable for teaching, for reproof, for correction, and for training in righteousness, 17 that the man of God may be complete, equipped for every good work”
I believe what the bible says and not what it seems to say.
Reading books wasn't the point and every Christian on the planet makes the EXACT SAME CLAIM that you just did about believing the bible.

The point is that there is a way to know who's understanding of the bible is the correct one. A rational, objective, systematic way of knowing and it isn't based on proof-texting.

And having a policy of not reading books is stupidity. Do you also not listen to sermons or go to Sunday School? What's the difference? The format is similar except that during a sermon, when the biblical material is particularly weak, the preacher can pound the pulpit and ask the congregation for an "amen".

It isn't that you should avoid books. Quite the contrary, in fact. It's simply that you have to be aware of what you are reading, who wrote it, and watch for tactics and techniques used by the author to persuade his audience.

You talk as if “proof-texting” is bad. If we can’t turn to scripture for truth, where do we turn?
This is an emotional response that has nothing to do with what I actually said and probably mostly to do with the effect my comments have on your way of doing doctrine.

Having a proof-text for something isn't bad. Going to the scripture for a passage that support a particular position you have is a perfectly legitmate and normal thing to do. Of course it is! Who in the world would ever suggest otherwise and what would make you think that I'm stupid enough to have done so?

It is when people build significant portions of their theology on proof-texting that a problem arrises. The reason for this was made clear in my last post. Everyone has a list of proof-texts - EVERYONE! It doesn't matter which side of what issue you're on, you will have a set of proof-texts. And so who's right? If your doctrine is built on proof-texting then you have no answer!

I can see the flaws when certain people use certain passages as proof-text.
Every single Christian alive who builds their doctrine on proof-texts can make this exact same claim.

Many times what they're missing/can't see/overlooking is right there in the passage. Context is very important. The Spirit has revealed the truth to us in scripture, we have to read it spiritually minded.
Three more sentences that every single Christian that lives, regardless of whether they agree with your doctrine or not, will agree with and state as freely and with as much conviction as you just did!

I’m curious what your “big picture” view is. I don’t see how it’s possible your doctrine fits into the big picture.
You can't see how it's possible because your puzzle pieces go to a different puzzle. You've put together a puzzle without having the box cover. All the pieces sort of fit together but the edges aren't straight and the picture is not quite coherent and certain pieces seem like they might fit better elsewhere but you have no way of discovering exactly which piece it is and where it's supposed to go. You're putting your puzzle together by focusing on the pieces and trying to form a coherent picture out of them instead of getting the box top to know that your putting together a picture of a hamburger instead of the motorcycle that you had pictured in your mind.

If you want to understand the big picture of the bible, and the New Testament in particular, there is an excellent book on the subject. It's the best I've ever read by far. Here's a link to chapter one...

https://kgov.com/overview-of-the-bible-the-plot
 

turbosixx

New member
your way of doing doctrine

I’m sorry I don’t approach it the same way that you do.

I’ve been a Christian for 40+ years. I wasn’t as diligent in my younger days but I have matured. I’ve heard and still listen to many sermons from all sides. That’s one reason I’m on here to listen to another side. I read commentaries but take them with a grain of salt. I refer to the Greek text and other reference material to get a better understanding but I only read scripture. I personally agree with Paul.

When you read this, you can perceive my insight into the mystery of Christ,

A rational, objective, systematic way of knowing and it isn't based on proof-texting.
How do you prove you have really come to know the truth if someone challenges you with a passage that doesn’t fit/agree with your doctrine?

Everyone has a list of proof-texts - EVERYONE!

You are correct. I liken them to “swing” states.

Often the proof that someone is not seeing it correctly is right there in their proof-text. For example, I will see them add a word to the passage. In their minds, they are reading exactly what it says and they cannot see that they are adding a word that the inspired writer did not use. Words are how we convey thoughts and concepts. If we change the words, 99.9% of the time we are changing the meaning.

Of course, taking out of context is another problem that you have already mentioned.

You can't see how it's possible because your puzzle pieces go to a different puzzle.

I like this analogy and have often thought of it this way. I see people using a hammer or changing the image on a piece in order for it to fit. I like the way my puzzle fits together and it makes perfect logical sense. I can read James 2 and Romans 4 and see that they are in agreement not opposing. I see the 12 and Paul preaching and converting Christians the exact same way. It fits perfectly in my understanding of the big picture.

If all we are going to discuss is my approach to understanding scripture instead of scripture, then I would prefer to end this discussion. I’ve always enjoyed talking with you so I would rather take a passage and discuss it. I know you said you were ready to take a break from TOL so I understand if you’re burnt out. I had to take a break for a while myself.

Respectfully,
Tom
 

Clete

Truth Smacker
Silver Subscriber
I’m sorry I don’t approach it the same way that you do.
Don't say things you don't mean. I'm not thin skinned. There's no need for niceties.

I’ve been a Christian for 40+ years.
Me too.

I wasn’t as diligent in my younger days but I have matured. I’ve heard and still listen to many sermons from all sides. That’s one reason I’m on here to listen to another side. I read commentaries but take them with a grain of salt. I refer to the Greek text and other reference material to get a better understanding but I only read scripture. I personally agree with Paul.

When you read this, you can perceive my insight into the mystery of Christ,
I don't understand your point here. Did you say this because you think I'd disagree with it?

Once again, my post was not anti-books or anti-preaching or teaching. It is proof-texting that I am talking about and was using the most common format of many Christian books on doctrine as an example of the sort of proof-texting I'm talking about.

Anyone who avoids books is a fool. Anyone who avoids preaching is silly and headed for disaster - especially if the person formulates his doctrine via proof-texting. If you are building your doctrine from the bottom up rather than the top down you're going to screw it up no matter how much of the bible you read. Working it from the details up to the big picture is impossible. Right doctrine MUST be done from the big picture down to the details.

How do you prove you have really come to know the truth if someone challenges you with a passage that doesn’t fit/agree with your doctrine?
There is no one answer to this question.

More often than not it is not possible to convince a person that their doctrine is wrong no matter how well you prove it. If this website is anything, it is absolute proof of that!

I don't want to leave this question entirely unanswered though so I'll tell you that I come to any discussion about doctrine with two primary premises in mind.

1. God is good.
2. Contradictions do not exist in reality.

That is to say that I automatically know that any doctrine that impugns the character of God is false. I don't need a proof text to prove it, I don't even attempt to prove it at all. It is a fundamental presupposition that forms the basis of not only my doctrine but of reason itself.

The second is like the first. Reality is real. God is real and as such the laws of reason apply. What is, is. A truth claim is either true or it is false and two truth claims that contradict each other cannot both be true. This is the basis of all thought, all knowledge, including theology, the logos of the theos, the logic of God. Indeed, God is logos, God is logic and so the second premise is just a restatement of the first.

So, by way of example, I know that Nang's doctrine is false. Nearly every word she posts is blasphemy because the logical conclusion of her doctrine is that no one, including God Himself, chooses their thoughts or actions and thus cannot love because love is a choice, by definition. I don't need a proof text from the bible to know this. I could quote several if I wanted to and to do so is perfectly valid but the fact of God's goodness is not based on those proof texts. In fact, it is the other way around. If the bible did not affirm the goodness of God, it would not be proof that God was not good, it would be proof that the bible was false. The bible is not the proper foundation of our doctrine, God is!

You are correct. I liken them to “swing” states.

Often the proof that someone is not seeing it correctly is right there in their proof-text. For example, I will see them add a word to the passage. In their minds, they are reading exactly what it says and they cannot see that they are adding a word that the inspired writer did not use. Words are how we convey thoughts and concepts. If we change the words, 99.9% of the time we are changing the meaning.

Of course, taking out of context is another problem that you have already mentioned.
Yes, and of course demonstrating the context of a passage is a perfectly good and correct thing to do in any bible study or doctrinal debate but even this has its dangers because people are not unbiased nor can they be. If you want to know whether your doctrine is more or less correct than another's, you simply cannot get that question answered by an analysis of the biblical material alone. You have to look at the paradigms. Your paradigm will color everything you think you see. If you think you see an error that someone else is making, how do you know that it's actually an error and not a product of your paradigm? If you've never spent any time evaluating your paradigm, you don't know nor can you know.

The tricky thing here is that even your evaluation of a paradigm is itself colored by your current paradigm. It's a truly difficult philosophical problem that is not easily overcome if it ever truly is overcome this side of Heaven. Humility is a key ingredient in any such endeavor.

I like this analogy and have often thought of it this way. I see people using a hammer or changing the image on a piece in order for it to fit. I like the way my puzzle fits together and it makes perfect logical sense. I can read James 2 and Romans 4 and see that they are in agreement not opposing. I see the 12 and Paul preaching and converting Christians the exact same way. It fits perfectly in my understanding of the big picture.
So lets compare two paradigms using this example that you bring up.

One paradigm allows you to read two passages that say opposite things and interprets one to mean the same as the other.

The other paradigm reads the same two passages that say opposite things and allows both passages to mean opposite things. One passage says that salvation is by faith apart from works, the other says that faith without works does not save you and the passages mean exactly that.

Which paradigm is superior to the other and why?

The former is the inferior paradigm. The reason why is because in that paradigm you are forced into proof-texting hell. The first paradigm leaves open two opposite and equally valid positions. One group will take Paul to mean what he said and interpret James to mean the same as Paul and another group will do the reverse. One group will believe that works aren't required for salvation and the other will believe they are required and both groups will use the same two sets of texts to "prove" their respective position. In the first paradigm you are forced into proof-texting mode where you emphasize the passages that support your position and explain away (or ignore) the passages the conflict with it. And neither group can get a rationally objective advantage over the other. It boils down to personal preference. It is the absolute opposite of objective and hardly what could be considered solid ground upon which to build a theological worldview.


The second paradigm however, is far superior because if such a paradigm can be found that allows you to simply read both passages and take them both to mean what they plainly say without any need or desire to make them agree, then such a paradigm has an enormous advantage because there is no longer any place for a personal opinion or preference. The Bible says what it says and means it - period. You are left with an understanding of both passages, of why each author said what they said and no harm is done to your doctrine by allowing them both to mean exactly what any random third grader who reads the passages would think they mean. There is no problem texts to have to deal with at all. In fact, both passages become proof texts! If that isn't superior, what is?

This is just one example of how one might go about comparing and contrasting different paradigms and coming to rationally objective conclusions about which are superior and for what reasons. There are many other ways but this is as good an example of how such work is done that I can think of.

If all we are going to discuss is my approach to understanding scripture instead of scripture, then I would prefer to end this discussion. I’ve always enjoyed talking with you so I would rather take a passage and discuss it. I know you said you were ready to take a break from TOL so I understand if you’re burnt out. I had to take a break for a while myself.

Respectfully,
Tom
I understand where you're coming from here and that's fine but just think this statement of yours through for a second. How would we even discuss a passage without discussing your understanding of scripture? The latter informs the former, does it not?

But, like I said, I get it. You're telling me that you aren't interesting in examining big picture issues, you're fine with your paradigm and want to deal with the details. I don't see the profit in that but I'm not you so don't let me stop you.

As for taking a break from TOL. I haven't fully decided about that yet. If this discussion hadn't been active, I'd have likely been gone already but now I think I'm just going to be way more selective about who I talk to and about what I choose to discuss. Come to think of it, that might turn out to be the same thing as leaving altogether! :chuckle: Hopefully not though.

Thanks for a substantive discussion!

Clete
 

turbosixx

New member
Don't say things you don't mean. I'm not thin skinned. There's no need for niceties.
I don't think I'm thinned skinned either. I know most everyone on here is passionate. I also know I'm not the sharpest knife in the drawer and I admit you appear to be more intelligent than myself. Honestly, when it comes to the truth I'm not sure that's an advantage and could be a disadvantage.
God is the one who reveals truth. We just point to it.

Right doctrine MUST be done from the big picture down to the details.
I agree and from my viewpoint that's what I'm doing.


I don't want to leave this question entirely unanswered though so I'll tell you that I come to any discussion about doctrine with two primary premises in mind.

1. God is good.
2. Contradictions do not exist in reality.
I agree.

The tricky thing here is that even your evaluation of a paradigm is itself colored by your current paradigm. It's a truly difficult philosophical problem that is not easily overcome if it ever truly is overcome this side of Heaven. Humility is a key ingredient in any such endeavor.

Amen

So lets compare two paradigms using this example that you bring up.

One paradigm allows you to read two passages that say opposite things and interprets one to mean the same as the other.

The other paradigm reads the same two passages that say opposite things and allows both passages to mean opposite things. One passage says that salvation is by faith apart from works, the other says that faith without works does not save you and the passages mean exactly that.

Which paradigm is superior to the other and why?

The former is the inferior paradigm. The reason why is because in that paradigm you are forced into proof-texting hell. The first paradigm leaves open two opposite and equally valid positions. One group will take Paul to mean what he said and interpret James to mean the same as Paul and another group will do the reverse. One group will believe that works aren't required for salvation and the other will believe they are required and both groups will use the same two sets of texts to "prove" their respective position. In the first paradigm you are forced into proof-texting mode where you emphasize the passages that support your position and explain away (or ignore) the passages the conflict with it. And neither group can get a rationally objective advantage over the other. It boils down to personal preference. It is the absolute opposite of objective and hardly what could be considered solid ground upon which to build a theological worldview.


The second paradigm however, is far superior because if such a paradigm can be found that allows you to simply read both passages and take them both to mean what they plainly say without any need or desire to make them agree, then such a paradigm has an enormous advantage because there is no longer any place for a personal opinion or preference. The Bible says what it says and means it - period. You are left with an understanding of both passages, of why each author said what they said and no harm is done to your doctrine by allowing them both to mean exactly what any random third grader who reads the passages would think they mean. There is no problem texts to have to deal with at all. In fact, both passages become proof texts! If that isn't superior, what is?

This is just one example of how one might go about comparing and contrasting different paradigms and coming to rationally objective conclusions about which are superior and for what reasons. There are many other ways but this is as good an example of how such work is done that I can think of.
Excellent discourse on paradigms. I subscribe to the latter.
Maybe I shouldn't have said "they agree". What I meant is that they do not oppose/contradict each other and are in harmony with one another and the rest of scripture.


I understand where you're coming from here and that's fine but just think this statement of yours through for a second. How would we even discuss a passage without discussing your understanding of scripture? The latter informs the former, does it not?
I would think if I was misunderstanding a passage it might be easier for me to see it if someone pointed out why/how I'm misunderstanding it.

You're telling me that you aren't interesting in examining big picture issues
I agree that having an understanding of the big picture colors how we view scripture. I do want to discuss the big picture. Maybe we're talking about different "big" pictures?

Here is my big picture. When Eve ate the forbidden fruit, sin entered the world. Jesus came into the world to remove that barrier of sin. Jesus' DBR brought salvation into the world removing sin. Big picture.
Maybe we should start simple then work towards details.
 

Clete

Truth Smacker
Silver Subscriber
Excellent discourse on paradigms. I subscribe to the latter.
Maybe I shouldn't have said "they agree". What I meant is that they do not oppose/contradict each other and are in harmony with one another and the rest of scripture.
I don't believe you. You'll need to prove it to me. (Don't take that personally. I'm just going by past experience. When people who do not rightly divide the word of truth make this claim, it never seems to be true. Perhaps you'll surprise me.)

James says that faith without works cannot save you. Paul says the exact opposite.

Now, don't misunderstand me here. I am not saying that there is a contradiction here, there isn't. But I doubt very much that you actually believe that they both mean what they say and are "in harmony with one another". Unless you're fixing to very much surprise me, you're going to have to explain how one or the other doesn't mean what it seems to mean.

You wanted to talk about a specific passage, this seems like an excellent one!

I would think if I was misunderstanding a passage it might be easier for me to see it if someone pointed out why/how I'm misunderstanding it.
Exactly! Which would almost immediately involve discussing your view of scripture (i.e. your theological paradigm), especially if the error you're making has specifically to do with that paradigm.

I agree that having an understanding of the big picture colors how we view scripture. I do want to discuss the big picture. Maybe we're talking about different "big" pictures?

Here is my big picture. When Eve ate the forbidden fruit, sin entered the world. Jesus came into the world to remove that barrier of sin. Jesus' DBR brought salvation into the world removing sin. Big picture.
Maybe we should start simple then work towards details.
Actually, it was through Adam that sin entered but otherwise, yes, this is a big important part of the big picture but there's way more to it than that. That's just two major points of the plot of the bible. There are several others and one huge one that happened during the Acts period that must be seen and understood in order to make sense of the New Testament.

Out of time for now. Gotta go to work!

Clete
 

DAN P

Well-known member
Baptism WITH the HS only happened twice and each time it was a SPECIAL situation.



This is NOT just like Acts 2. Laying hands is NOT how they received the HS. Look at the details of HOW the 12 received the HS in Acts 2. It only happened TWICE and Acts 2 is the first time.

Acts 19 is just like Acts 8 not Acts 2.
Acts 8:16 for he had not yet fallen on any of them, but they had only been baptized in the name of the Lord Jesus. 17 Then they laid their hands on them and they received the Holy Spirit.
Acts 19:6 And when Paul had laid his hands on them, the Holy Spirit came on them, and they began speaking in tongues and prophesying.

Hi and it happened in Acts 2:17 the HOLY SPIRIT in the LAST DAYS is in the Greek FUTURE TENSE and has yet to happen !!

The NEAR VIEW is what happened in Acts 2 !!

The FAR VIEW will happen when the 144,000 preach to their fellow Jews min the 3 1/2 years of Jacob's Trouble !!

Acts 2:38 also has no WATER as they will receive the GIFT of the HOLY SPIRIT !!

The other is in Acts 10:44 the HOLY SPIRIT FELL UPON THEM !!

Just because all see the word BAPTISM does not mean it is water and most of the GREEK word BAPTISM is the Greek word BAPTISMA and used 22 times from Matt through Eph 4:5 !!

dan p
 

turbosixx

New member
James says that faith without works cannot save you. Paul says the exact opposite.

Hope I can present this in a way that it flows and makes sense.
It looks like they are saying the exact opposite. What I find very interesting about these two passages is that both writers turn to the same OT verse to support their point,
Rom. 4:3 For what does the Scripture say? “Abraham believed God, and it was counted to him as righteousness.”
Jam. 2:23 and the Scripture was fulfilled that says,“Abraham believed God, and it was counted to him as righteousness”—and he was called a friend of God.
This is where context comes in as you had mentioned before. I would suggest to you that Paul and James are not speaking about the same “works”. Works is a general term and needs a qualifier to know what specific work is being spoken of. In the absence of a qualifier, assumptions are made so then we must turn to the context.

In Romans, Paul is speaking about the specific works “of the law”.
He tells them even with/without the law everyone is under sin, 3:9, and that no human can be justified in God’s sight by works “of the law”.
3:20 For by works of the law no human being will be justified in his sight, since through the law comes knowledge of sin.
With our 20/20 vision we understand that the Law cannot make one perfect because it didn’t have the blood of Christ to back it.

Paul says but now man can be made righteous apart from the law.
3:21 But now the righteousness of God has been manifested apart from the law, although the Law and the Prophets bear witness to it—
This is something the believing Jews are struggling with, understandably. They can’t imagine being justified before God without following God’s law that they have been following for 1,500+ years. Paul continues.
3:28 For we hold that one is justified by faith apart from works “of the law”.
So to prove to them they can be found righteous without the law and without circumcision, Paul uses Abraham to show them .
4:9 Is this blessing then only for the circumcised, or also for the uncircumcised? For we say that faith was counted to Abraham as righteousness. 10 How then was it counted to him? Was it before or after he had been circumcised? It was not after, but before he was circumcised.
Paul is telling the Jews that before the Law and even before circumcision, God found Abraham righteous. Making the point they can be righteous without them. So, when Paul says 5 And to the one who does not work but believes in him who justifies the ungodly, his faith is counted as righteousness, is not talking about works done in Christ but in works “of the law”. That's the context.

The “works” James is speaking of are the fruits of the Spirit. We know the fruit of the Spirit is love, joy, peace, patience, kindness, goodness, faithfulness,23 gentleness, self-control. It appears they were not acting with the love they should have for one another. He reminds them of the law to point out that they are not even in good standing with it and then tells them, 12 So speak and so act as those who are to be judged under the law of liberty. Law of liberty being under Christ unlike the law of bondage.

He then explains to them how the law of liberty works. Even though they are no longer under the Law of works, our faith without works “of the Spirit” is dead. He uses an example they are familiar with to prove his point.
2:20 Do you want to be shown, you foolish person, that faith apart from works is useless? 21 Was not Abraham our father justified by works when he offered up his son Isaac on the altar?
James says that in Abraham doing so fulfilled the scripture.
2:22 You see that faith was active along with his works, and faith was completed by his works; 23 and the Scripture was fulfilled that says,“Abraham believed God, and it was counted to him as righteousness”—


Paul never says we are saved by “faith alone” or faith "without" works(of Spirit).
8 For by grace you have been saved through faith. And this is not your own doing; it is the gift of God, 9 not a result of works, so that no one may boast.
Faith "alone" is not in the passage. I see many quote this passage adding the word "alone". Paul says not as a “result”. It does not say “without” works but actually implies those saved will have works, especially when considering the context. Our salvation is not a result of our works.

5 he saved us, not because of works done by us in righteousness, Again, this is not saying He saves us “without” works but NOT BECAUSE OF works done by us.

I’m told that we are saved by "faith alone". Faith alone is faith without works but Paul never tells us that.
It is impossible to be saved BY works. Works, any works whether “of the Law” or works done in Christ cannot save us. Our works are filthy rags and simply our duty. There is absolutely no work we could ever do in order to be saved. That is why it’s by grace.
 

turbosixx

New member
Hi and it happened in Acts 2:17 the HOLY SPIRIT in the LAST DAYS is in the Greek FUTURE TENSE and has yet to happen !!
Acts 2:17 is a QUOTE from the OT which was looking to the future of Pentecost. Look what the verse before verse 17, it says.
16:16 But this is what was uttered through the prophet Joel:

Acts 2:38 also has no WATER as they will receive the GIFT of the HOLY SPIRIT !!
What are you basing this on?

The other is in Acts 10:44 the HOLY SPIRIT FELL UPON THEM !!
They were baptized with water in this passage.
Acts 10:47 “Can anyone withhold water for baptizing these people, who have received the Holy Spirit just as we have?” 48 And he commanded them to be baptized in the name of Jesus Christ.
WHY were they water baptized "in the name of" Jesus after having received the HS?

BAPTISM is the Greek word BAPTISMA
Yep and it means the rite of baptism, immersion, dipping
 

Right Divider

Body part
Yep and it means the rite of baptism, immersion, dipping
Mat 20:22-23 KJV But Jesus answered and said, Ye know not what ye ask. Are ye able to drink of the cup that I shall drink of, and to be baptized with the baptism that I am baptized with? They say unto him, We are able. (23) And he saith unto them, Ye shall drink indeed of my cup, and be baptized with the baptism that I am baptized with: but to sit on my right hand, and on my left, is not mine to give, but it shall be given to them for whom it is prepared of my Father.
 

DAN P

Well-known member
Acts 2:17 is a QUOTE from the OT which was looking to the future of Pentecost. Look what the verse before verse 17, it says.
16:16 But this is what was uttered through the prophet Joel:


What are you basing this on?


They were baptized with water in this passage.
Acts 10:47 “Can anyone withhold water for baptizing these people, who have received the Holy Spirit just as we have?” 48 And he commanded them to be baptized in the name of Jesus Christ.
WHY were they water baptized "in the name of" Jesus after having received the HS?


Yep and it means the rite of baptism, immersion, dipping

Hi and it does not !!

Heb 6:1 and 2 are very clear that we are to LEAVE / FORSAKE the teaching of Christ and verse 2 are to forsake BAPTISMS !!

dan p
 

turbosixx

New member
Hi and it does not !!

Heb 6:1 and 2 are very clear that we are to LEAVE / FORSAKE the teaching of Christ and verse 2 are to forsake BAPTISMS !!

dan p

I would suggest you look at the context. The writer is rebuking them for not having moved past these elementary principles. Look at the previous chapter.

Heb. 5:11 About this we have much to say, and it is hard to explain, since you have become dull of hearing. 12 For though by this time you ought to be teachers, you need someone to teach you again the basic principles of the oracles of God. You need milk, not solid food,

Are we to FORSAKE faith toward God??
6:1 Therefore let us leave the elementary doctrine of Christ and go on to maturity, not laying again a foundation of repentance from dead works and of faith toward God, 2 and of instruction about washings, the laying on of hands, the resurrection of the dead, and eternal judgment.



Why did Paul lay hands on them AFTER they were baptized in the name of Jesus?
Acts 19:5 On hearing this, they were baptized in the name of the Lord Jesus. 6 And when Paul had laid his hands on them, the Holy Spirit came on them, and they began speaking in tongues and prophesying.


IF baptized "in the name of" Jesus is NOT water, WHAT is it and HOW is it done?
 
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Right Divider

Body part
I would suggest you look at the context. The writer is rebuking them for not having moved past these elementary principles. Look at the previous chapter.

Heb. 5:11 About this we have much to say, and it is hard to explain, since you have become dull of hearing. 12 For though by this time you ought to be teachers, you need someone to teach you again the basic principles of the oracles of God. You need milk, not solid food,

Are we to FORSAKE faith toward God??
6:1 Therefore let us leave the elementary doctrine of Christ and go on to maturity, not laying again a foundation of repentance from dead works and of faith toward God, 2 and of instruction about washings, the laying on of hands, the resurrection of the dead, and eternal judgment.
The book to the HEBREWS has nothing to do with the body of Christ.
Much can be learned from it, but trying to apply ITS doctrines to the body of Christ is pure chaos.
 

Clete

Truth Smacker
Silver Subscriber
Hope I can present this in a way that it flows and makes sense.
It looks like they are saying the exact opposite. What I find very interesting about these two passages is that both writers turn to the same OT verse to support their point,
Rom. 4:3 For what does the Scripture say? “Abraham believed God, and it was counted to him as righteousness.”
Jam. 2:23 and the Scripture was fulfilled that says,“Abraham believed God, and it was counted to him as righteousness”—and he was called a friend of God.
This is where context comes in as you had mentioned before. I would suggest to you that Paul and James are not speaking about the same “works”. Works is a general term and needs a qualifier to know what specific work is being spoken of. In the absence of a qualifier, assumptions are made so then we must turn to the context.

In Romans, Paul is speaking about the specific works “of the law”.
He tells them even with/without the law everyone is under sin, 3:9, and that no human can be justified in God’s sight by works “of the law”.
3:20 For by works of the law no human being will be justified in his sight, since through the law comes knowledge of sin.
With our 20/20 vision we understand that the Law cannot make one perfect because it didn’t have the blood of Christ to back it.

Paul says but now man can be made righteous apart from the law.
3:21 But now the righteousness of God has been manifested apart from the law, although the Law and the Prophets bear witness to it—
This is something the believing Jews are struggling with, understandably. They can’t imagine being justified before God without following God’s law that they have been following for 1,500+ years. Paul continues.
3:28 For we hold that one is justified by faith apart from works “of the law”.
So to prove to them they can be found righteous without the law and without circumcision, Paul uses Abraham to show them .
4:9 Is this blessing then only for the circumcised, or also for the uncircumcised? For we say that faith was counted to Abraham as righteousness. 10 How then was it counted to him? Was it before or after he had been circumcised? It was not after, but before he was circumcised.
Paul is telling the Jews that before the Law and even before circumcision, God found Abraham righteous. Making the point they can be righteous without them. So, when Paul says 5 And to the one who does not work but believes in him who justifies the ungodly, his faith is counted as righteousness, is not talking about works done in Christ but in works “of the law”. That's the context.

The “works” James is speaking of are the fruits of the Spirit. We know the fruit of the Spirit is love, joy, peace, patience, kindness, goodness, faithfulness,23 gentleness, self-control. It appears they were not acting with the love they should have for one another. He reminds them of the law to point out that they are not even in good standing with it and then tells them, 12 So speak and so act as those who are to be judged under the law of liberty. Law of liberty being under Christ unlike the law of bondage.

He then explains to them how the law of liberty works. Even though they are no longer under the Law of works, our faith without works “of the Spirit” is dead. He uses an example they are familiar with to prove his point.
2:20 Do you want to be shown, you foolish person, that faith apart from works is useless? 21 Was not Abraham our father justified by works when he offered up his son Isaac on the altar?
James says that in Abraham doing so fulfilled the scripture.
2:22 You see that faith was active along with his works, and faith was completed by his works; 23 and the Scripture was fulfilled that says,“Abraham believed God, and it was counted to him as righteousness”—


Paul never says we are saved by “faith alone” or faith "without" works(of Spirit).
8 For by grace you have been saved through faith. And this is not your own doing; it is the gift of God, 9 not a result of works, so that no one may boast.
Faith "alone" is not in the passage. I see many quote this passage adding the word "alone". Paul says not as a “result”. It does not say “without” works but actually implies those saved will have works, especially when considering the context. Our salvation is not a result of our works.

5 he saved us, not because of works done by us in righteousness, Again, this is not saying He saves us “without” works but NOT BECAUSE OF works done by us.

I’m told that we are saved by "faith alone". Faith alone is faith without works but Paul never tells us that.
It is impossible to be saved BY works. Works, any works whether “of the Law” or works done in Christ cannot save us. Our works are filthy rags and simply our duty. There is absolutely no work we could ever do in order to be saved. That is why it’s by grace.

All of that to say that Paul is the one that didn't mean what it seems like he means when you just read the passage but James got it clearly stated in one sentence and all you have to do is read it.

I have never found ANYONE who claims that they take both passages to mean what they say who actually did it. Not one single person! (That is, no one who didn't already hold to a Mid-Acts Dispensational doctrinal system.)

This is to be expected however, right? I mean, it's pretty obvious that one or the other is going to have to be "interpreted" in order for them to be in agreement because the face value conflict between the two passages is completely obvious and undeniable. You begin youe post with "It looks like they are saying the exact opposite." Yes! It sure does! It looks like it because they are, in fact, saying opposite things. Not only are they saying opposite things, they should be saying opposite things! If they weren't there would be a big problem. It would throw Paul's entire ministry into question. There is simply no need for Paul if his gospel was the same as that of The Twelve.

Further, I submit to you that you do not believe that it was Paul who was less than perfectly clear for any good biblical reason but rather you construct your defense of your position because of your preexisting doctrine. The proof of this is that it won't just be salvation by works where you de-emphasize Paul's writings and interpret them in the light of the other New Testament writers. You will, instinctively and usually unconsciously, lean toward the law and away from grace.

For example, based on what you've done here with Paul's writings on the issue of salvation by faith requiring works, it is likely that you will believe...
  • That you have to get wet to get saved (of course this one was easy :) )
  • That you can lose your salvation.
  • That the Ten Commandments should be followed by Christians.
  • That there is no rapture (or at least no pre-tribulation rapture).
  • Avoiding "unclean" foods (i.e. pork and shell fish, etc) might be a good idea.

Short on time! Sorry that's not a more thorough response!

Clete
 
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turbosixx

New member
All of that to say that Paul is the one that didn't mean what it seems like he means

Paul said exactly what he meant to say and makes it perfectly clear. Justified apart from works of the law.
28 For we hold that one is justified by faith apart from works of the law.

Works is a general term and adding a qualifier makes it a specific set of works. For example, by saying just "works" one could possibly mean works of darkness.
11 Take no part in the unfruitful works of darkness, but instead expose them.

Paul adding "of the Law" eliminates every other type of work.

If all you're trying to do is narrow down what category of heretic to put me in, Fool is fine with me. I personally would rather discuss scripture than why I'm an idiot. I know you haven't called me that but all you have been doing is pointing out what's wrong with me. Telling me what you think won't help me to see that Paul is not speaking of works "of the law". Addressing the context and pointing out what I'm missing will.



You will, instinctively and usually unconsciously, lean toward the law and away from grace.
I don't think you have figured out what I believe yet. I believe we are NOT under the Law of Moses and we(non-Jews)have NEVER been. The Jews are not even under it today.

I'm curious, how do you think these people were saved? Law or grace? or other?
Acts 2:47 praising God and having favor with all the people. And the Lord added to their number day by day those who were being saved.
 

Clete

Truth Smacker
Silver Subscriber
Paul said exactly what he meant to say and makes it perfectly clear. Justified apart from works of the law.
So was James.

James tells us not only that he was writing to Jews (James 1:1) but that his followers were zealous for the law. (Acts 21:20)
Not only that but he references the law several times most prominently in chapter 2 verses 8 through 12.

Further, Paul states the Abraham was declared righteous before he was circumcised (before Genesis 9) but James states that Abraham was justified by works when he offered Isaac his son on the altar (Genisis 22).

It is not possible for you to find any way around that one. Paul explicitly states that "faith was accounted to Abraham for righteousness" at some point before Genesis 9 when he was circumcised (Romans 4:9) while James explicitly states that "Abraham our father [was] justified by works when he offered Isaac his son on the altar" in Genesis 22 (James 2:21).

There is no way they aren't making opposite points. It's as plain as can be - IF - all you do is read it.

If all you're trying to do is narrow down what category of heretic to put me in, Fool is fine with me.
What? Who said anything about being a heretic?

I'm talking about the way you interpret the bible. Your paradigm literally has made you think you take passages at face value when you absolutely do not. I'm not suggesting that you're doing it intentionally. In fact, quite the contrary. You are, in fact, quite entirely blind to it. All I am doing is showing it to you in the hopes that you'll see it and accept the possibility that there is an objectively superior way to go about doing biblical theology.

I personally would rather discuss scripture than why I'm an idiot.
Look, you need to cool your jets. What are you new around here or what? Have you ever seen me insinuate that someone is stupid? Or is it not my regular mode to simply tell someone plainly that they are stupid? Trust me, if I was trying to say that you were stupid, there'd be no room for doubt about what I was trying to say because I would use the words "You" and "are" and "stupid!" in that order.

I can tell you that if I thought you were stupid, I wouldn't even be engaged in this conversation.

I know you haven't called me that but all you have been doing is pointing out what's wrong with me.
Well, it's not as if I've been simply making that claim without supporting it with reasonable arguments. This is, after all, a website where people who disagree with eachother come to hash things out. That's sort of the whole point of being here.

Besides, I don't disagree with you any more than you do with me, right? So why don't I feel attacked by you're trying to tell me that I'm wrong for saying that Paul and James are saying opposite things? You've made that claim and made a solid argument. It isn't my fault if I don't engage the debate in a fashion that would require me to accept your premise (i.e. accept your biblical paradigm).

Telling me what you think won't help me to see that Paul is not speaking of works "of the law". Addressing the context and pointing out what I'm missing will.
It should help you! Do you think that it's coincidence that I guessed your position on most, if not all, of those doctrinal issues correctly?

It isn't a coincidence!

I agree that I could have been more thorough with my previous response but I was short on time. Hopefully, this post has rectified that.

I don't think you have figured out what I believe yet. I believe we are NOT under the Law of Moses and we(non-Jews)have NEVER been. The Jews are not even under it today.
Which of those doctrines did I guess wrong? (The last one is always pretty iffy.)

I'm curious, how do you think these people were saved? Law or grace? or other?
Acts 2:47 praising God and having favor with all the people. And the Lord added to their number day by day those who were being saved.
There is no question about it. I don't even have to read the passage (although I am familiar with it). Anyone saved prior to Acts 9 (and several after that point) were saved under the Kingdom Gospel and were brought into the the family of God under the previous dispensation and were, therefore, required to obey the Law just as Jesus did and taught. Anyone who became a believer became a member of the Kingdom of Israel. Virtually all, if not all, of them were Jews and simply accepted Jesus as their Messiah and would have believe and functioned in a manner consistent with being Jews, observing the Sabbaths (all of them) avoiding unclean foods, tithing, baptizing, etc, etc.

Clete
 
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