ECT KJV ONLY?

ARMcCarley

New member
I had a KJV only follower tell me they have their proof in Psalms 12:6.
  • Psa 12:6 “The words of the LORD are pure words: as silver tried in a furnace of earth, purified seven times.” (KJV)
How does the verse support that the KJV is the only true translation?

I wish for someone on both sides to provide credible facts in a paragraph or less.
 
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Spitfire

New member
Fact: that was not originally written in English. Nor was any of God's public revelation through scripture. If anything, that very verse is a repudiation of the King James Bible or any other translation into any modern vernacular language. There certainly isn't anything in that about the King James translation maintaining the purity of those words better than other translations.
 

False Prophet

New member
The Authorized Version was translated from the original tongues. That is the first part came from the Vulgate. The second part came from Erasmus Greek Christian Scriptures that he translated from the Vulgate into Greek!
 

DAN P

Well-known member
I had a KJV only follower tell me they have their proof in Psalms 12:6.
  • Psa 12:6 “The words of the LORD are pure words: as silver tried in a furnace of earth, purified seven times.” (KJV)
How does the verse support that the KJV is the only true translation?

I wish for someone on both sides to provide credible facts in a paragraph or less.


Hi and only the Original Autographs are Inspired and the other 160 Translations with their Transliteralion are NOT INSPIRED !!

DAN P
 

Danoh

New member
I had a KJV only follower tell me they have their proof in Psalms 12:6.
  • Psa 12:6 “The words of the LORD are pure words: as silver tried in a furnace of earth, purified seven times.” (KJV)
How does the verse support that the KJV is the only true translation?

I wish for someone on both sides to provide credible facts in a paragraph or less.

In my understanding - actually; the KJVO assertion is that that passage is asserting that God promised to preserve His Word.

This is then followed - not with the assertion that the KJV is that preserved Word - but that the KJV is that preserved Word.....for today.

Big difference as far as "the things that differ" principle is concerned.

As for that passage; at the very least it's actual promise of preservation implies the very Word asserting said actual promise, will also be preserved.

Otherwise; why make a promise no one will know about centuries later?

Can't have the following, without its preservation.

As in the above writer's obvious belief; the following writer's assertion also implies a belief on his part in the Word's preservation...

Isaiah 8:20 To the law and to the testimony: if they speak not according to this word, it is because there is no light in them.

The basis of my assertion, these men had believed in God's preservation of His Word through the saints of God throughout their generations?

Isaiah 29:18 And in that day shall the deaf hear the words of the book, and the eyes of the blind shall see out of obscurity, and out of darkness.

Isaiah 30:8 Now go, write it before them in a table, and note it in a book, that it may be for the time to come for ever and ever:

Isaiah 34:16 Seek ye out of the book of the LORD, and read: no one of these shall fail, none shall want her mate: for my mouth it hath commanded, and his spirit it hath gathered them.

Matthew 4:3 And when the tempter came to him, he said, If thou be the Son of God, command that these stones be made bread. 4:4 But he answered and said, It is written, Man shall not live by bread alone, but by every word that proceedeth out of the mouth of God.

Gotta have said every Word if one is to be expected to live by said every Word.

Well; at least the Living Word seemed to think so Himself.

Luke 4:16 And he came to Nazareth, where he had been brought up: and, as his custom was, he went into the synagogue on the sabbath day, and stood up for to read. 4:17 And there was delivered unto him the book of the prophet Esaias. And when he had opened the book, he found the place where it was written, 4:18 The Spirit of the Lord is upon me, because he hath anointed me to preach the gospel to the poor; he hath sent me to heal the brokenhearted, to preach deliverance to the captives, and recovering of sight to the blind, to set at liberty them that are bruised, 4:19 To preach the acceptable year of the Lord.

But what can we expect from the traditions of men if even the Living Word Himself had to put up with their notions about Him and HIS Written Word...

Luke 4:20 And he closed the book, and he gave it again to the minister, and sat down. And the eyes of all them that were in the synagogue were fastened on him. 4:21 And he began to say unto them, This day is this scripture fulfilled in your ears. 4:22 And all bare him witness, and wondered at the gracious words which proceeded out of his mouth. And they said, Is not this Joseph's son? 4:23 And he said unto them, Ye will surely say unto me this proverb, Physician, heal thyself: whatsoever we have heard done in Capernaum, do also here in thy country. 4:24 And he said, Verily I say unto you, No prophet is accepted in his own country.
 

DAN P

Well-known member
Nope - there are plenty of KJVOs who say it is NOT inspired - many of them KJVO MADs.

Get your facts straight.


Hi and many hold to DOUBLE INSPIRATION , BUT we know that the New Testament was written in Greek and those who believe in KJ-ONLY are wrong !!

Here is one example in Rom 1:4 in the KJV ends with " from the dead " BUT the Greek text ends like this " from the dead , JESUS CHRIST OUR LORD "

Check it out , LOL to you !!

I can safely say that the KJV were not translated by Dispensationalists !!

dan k
 
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Bradley D

Well-known member
The OT is written in Hebrew and the NT in Greek. One must also relate to the times that the books were written. Because the meaning of a word changes over the years. I have found the KJV to be rather accurate when comparing the Hebrew/Greek. I do not consider it the only version to use. I have several study Bibles NIV/RSV/NKJV that I like to study. I have found people have their favorite versions. There are also some way off versions also.
 

Danoh

New member
Hi and many hold to DOUBLE INSPIRATION , BUT we know that the New Testament was written in Greek and those who believe in KJ-ONLY are wrong !!

Here is lone example in Ron 1:4 in the KJV ends with " from the dead " BUT the Greek text ends like this " from the dead , JESUS CHRIST OUR LORD "

Check it out , LOL to you !!

I can safely say that the KJV were not translated by Dispensationalists !!

dan k

What I said was that "there are plenty of KJVOs who say it is NOT inspired - many of them KJVO MADs."

Get your facts straight."

Apparantly, you are oblivious to the fact that most KJVO MADs are Cessationist as to ALL the gifts.

Such would NOT hold that the KJV and or its' English is "inspired."

Now watch you miss the principle as you once more conclude the example I used, not the principle it was meant to illustrate, is what I was talking about :chuckle:
 
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DAN P

Well-known member
What I said was that "here are plenty of KJVOs who say it is NOT inspired - many of them KJVO MADs.

Get your facts straight."

Apparantly, you are oblivious to the fact that most KJVO MADs are Cessationist as to ALL the gifts.

Such would NOT hold that the KJV and or its' English is "inspired."

Now watch you miss the principle as you once more conclude the example I used, not the principle it was meant to illustrate, is what I was talking about :chuckle:


Hi and as I have said many times , dispemsationlists are lover the place in theology !!

dan p
 
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