Originally posted by ghost
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Does God know all things that are, have been, and will be?
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Jesus saves completely. http://www.climatedepot.com/ http://www.thereligionofpeace.com/
Titus 1
For there are many insubordinate, both idle talkers and deceivers, especially those of the circumcision, whose mouths must be stopped
Ephesians 5
11 And have no fellowship with the unfruitful works of darkness, but rather expose them. 12 For it is shameful even to speak of those things which are done by them in secret
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Originally posted by tetelestai View PostIHe knows everything, and has always known everything.Jesus saves completely. http://www.climatedepot.com/ http://www.thereligionofpeace.com/
Titus 1
For there are many insubordinate, both idle talkers and deceivers, especially those of the circumcision, whose mouths must be stopped
Ephesians 5
11 And have no fellowship with the unfruitful works of darkness, but rather expose them. 12 For it is shameful even to speak of those things which are done by them in secret
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Originally posted by ghost View PostI think I understand what you are saying.
If the temporal events are a fulfillment of His eternal purpose, then would you say that those temporal events were eternally fully known?
If so, then how can anything ever be conceived as a purpose?
I understand that I'm not formulating my questions as well as I'd like, but I'm trying to understand how it is perceived by Calvinists (and apparently others) that all things have eternally been present in the mind of God and yet Him having the ability to create or conceive anything in His mind.
Creation manifests all purposes, just as created mankind's actions reveal their hearts' desires . . . upon which all Godly justice is based.
Nang"The immutable God never learned anything and never changed his mind. He knew everything from eternity."
" The difference between faith and saving faith are the propositions believed."
Gordon H. Clark
"If a man be lost, God must not have the blame for it; but if a man be saved, God must have the glory of it."
Charles Spurgeon
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Originally posted by tetelestai View PostI don't think anyone can really explain it.
God is eternal and infinite, therefore He knows everything, and has always known everything.
There are plenty of settled theists and open theists around here that will make you think you are watching some time travel-science fiction movie with a big dose of philosophy thrown in.
I can't explain it.
Good Luck!
Should it not concern us that something that is so highly debated cannot be explained? Especially since it seems to carry so much weight in being a foundation for what we believe about God? Why would anyone be so firm in their belief concerning something that cannot be explained?
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Originally posted by ghost View PostCalvinism would have us believe that since God is eternal, He knows all things that are, have been or will be. Is this true?
Have I represented Calvinism's view correctly?
Originally posted by ghost View PostWhat I'm asking is (and there is no best way to ask this) if all things that are, have been, or will be are a present reality in eternity? In other words, would you say that as God is, so is all things present in the mind of God?
If you have a better way of explaining your (or Calvinism's) view concerning what God knows, how much He knows, and when He knows it. Please explain. Thanks.sigpic
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Originally posted by ghost View PostWhy would anyone be so firm in their belief concerning something that cannot be explained?
I don't find that being an open theist or a settled theist has a great bearing on one's understanding of the Word of God.
Godrulz and Nick M are open theists; do you ever see them agree on anything?
Nang and STP are settled theists; do you ever see them agree on anything?(1 Cor 1:13 KJV) Is Christ divided? was Paul crucified for you? or were ye baptized in the name of Paul?
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Originally posted by ghost View PostAnd I'm sure this has been asked before...
So, when God says He no longer remembers our sins, it really means that He doesn't forget them, but that He doesn't take them into account?♠
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Originally posted by Delmar View PostI am an OVer but I think that is a reasonable explanation. If God had actual amnesia concerning our sins, it seems to me that it would limit His ability to guide us in the future.
Isn't it limiting God's ability to think a new thought if He knows everything eternally?
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Originally posted by ghost View PostAnd I'm sure this has been asked before...
So, when God says He no longer remembers our sins, it really means that He doesn't forget them, but that He doesn't take them into account?
Which is the result of imputed righteousness of the last Adam, that legally overrules and pardons (removes) the imputation of guilt imposed upon us through the first Adam.
Are you an absolute and pure literalist?
Nang"The immutable God never learned anything and never changed his mind. He knew everything from eternity."
" The difference between faith and saving faith are the propositions believed."
Gordon H. Clark
"If a man be lost, God must not have the blame for it; but if a man be saved, God must have the glory of it."
Charles Spurgeon
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Originally posted by ghost View PostHow then does God, in His mind, take into account and not take into account our sins eternally?
Thus, before creation, Father and Son covenanted to redeem men who would most certainly prove to be finite and sinful (fall short of the glory of God).
Isn't it limiting God's ability to think a new thought if He knows everything eternally?
Reformed Christians do not limit God in any capacity/ability and do not believe anything can or should be added to the definition of God or His eternal purposes; nor is there anything in this creation that is "new" to God.
Such is solely a demeaning OV theory which is not biblical at all.
NangLast edited by Nang; October 19th, 2011, 10:27 PM."The immutable God never learned anything and never changed his mind. He knew everything from eternity."
" The difference between faith and saving faith are the propositions believed."
Gordon H. Clark
"If a man be lost, God must not have the blame for it; but if a man be saved, God must have the glory of it."
Charles Spurgeon
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Originally posted by Nang View PostThus, before creation, Father and Son covenanted to redeem men who would most certainly prove to be finite and sinful (fall short of the glory of God).
It means He no longer legally marks or recognizes (Hebrew "zakar") our sins against us.
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Originally posted by tetelestai View PostI don't think anyone can really explain it.
God is eternal and infinite, therefore He knows everything, and has always known everything.
There are plenty of settled theists and open theists around here that will make you think you are watching some time travel-science fiction movie with a big dose of philosophy thrown in.
I can't explain it.
Good Luck!So, what?
believe it!
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Originally posted by Ktoyou View PostI can explain it, but that does not mean I am going to explain it.Jer 23:5 Behold, the days come, saith the LORD[YHVH], that I will raise unto David a righteous Branch, and a King shall reign and prosper, and shall execute judgment and justice in the earth.
Jer 23:6 In his days Judah shall be saved, and Israel shall dwell safely: and this is his name whereby he[the Branch] shall be called, THE LORD[YHVH] OUR RIGHTEOUSNESS.
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