Quote Originally Posted by Dialogos View Post
When did 1 John 3:20 become true? When did God begin to "know all things?"

Lighthouse, who has closed the thread he started to discuss this issue after only 8 posts (hmmm, I wonder why....), has said that he thinks that 1 John 3:20 isn't true prior to Genesis 18. He thinks that the narrative passage where God comes down to judge Sodom and Gomorrah disproves that God can knew all things during that timeframe. You can see the whole discussion here.

My questions are fourfold.

1. Is this a common belief of the Open Theists on this board?

2. If it is, then when did God become omniscient? When does 1 John 3:20 become true of God?
3. Does scripture record the event where God became omniscient? If so, were in scripture do we find this?
4. Isn't this really more in line with process theology than it is open theism?
Quite possibly.