No.
Quite possibly.2. If it is, then when did God become omniscient? When does 1 John 3:20 become true of God?
3. Does scripture record the event where God became omniscient? If so, were in scripture do we find this?
4. Isn't this really more in line with process theology than it is open theism?
I don't care how systematic your theology is, until you show me how biblical it is.
2 Tim 2:15 Do your best to present yourself to God as one approved, a worker who has no need to be ashamed, rightly handling the word of truth.
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