John 15:12 does not say that...
what you just quoted was from the OT btw...some NEW... lol...the irony
Robert's Gospel According to the Apostle Paul
- Thread starter Robert Pate
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John 15:12 does not say that...
what you just quoted was from the OT btw...some NEW... lol...the irony
I'm trying to understand you.
Are you claiming the law is only there for a reference to know whether something is a sin or not?
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Why is "the law and the prophets" so lengthy? Why didn't God just use this one verse in the first place?
I never said it did.
You asked me to list the Law of Christ.
The Bible doesn't specifically list the Law of Christ. It gives an example in Gal 6:2, but nowhere does it say specifically what the law is.
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:rotfl:
I need no covenant.
P.S. You are NOT under the new covenant, since it has not been established yet.
right you said what was already and old...supposedly abolished...and yet you use it still
maybe cuz it's the one He gave at Sinai? Just didn't sign that contract as well you know One become flesh...or our High Priest...
Buddhists and muslims and pagans bear each other's burdens...is that destroying the law already destroyed?
LOL...
why the concern fulfilling an abolished law anyway?
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The body of Christ has no priesthood. The body of Christ is not Israel.
Ask about his 40+ year transitional thingy...also inventive but less than yours though
And this demon again spams this deceit, as I/others, give him 10 times the # of verses he provides, chapter, verse,and expounded, as he merely spams verses in isolation, with no explanation, deletes 3/4 of the bible, adds words to the bible, replaces words with "Pate-anity" made up words.
You, on record,delete 1 Corinthians 15:1-4 KJV, denying that Christ died for our sins, you satanic pawn
You are claiming that Paul says the law was made void,that the law, since it no longer exists, no longer shows the lost,what sin is, teaching them that coveting,...................are sins, breaking God's holy, spiritual law, that it no longer leads others to Christ, as a schoolmaster/teacher/"tutor," as it did Paul, the Romans, the Galatians.....................?
Go on record.
If yes, then you assert that Christ did not die for our/your sins, and that He died to make void the His own law, destroy it.
On record.
This statement directly contradicts OT and NT Scriptures;
Ps 110:4 The Lord hath sworn, and will not repent, Thou art a priest for ever after the order of Melchizedek.
Heb 5:5-10 So also Christ did not glorify himself so as to become a high priest, but He who said to him, "YOU ARE MY SON, TODAY I HAVE BEGOTTEN YOU";
6 just as He says also in another passage, "YOU ARE A PRIEST FOREVER ACCORDING TO THE ORDER OF MELCHIZEDEK."
7 In the days of his flesh, He offered up both prayers and supplications with loud crying and tears to the One able to save him from death, and he was heard because of his piety.
8 Although he was a Son, he learned obedience from the things which he suffered.
9 And having been made perfect, he became to all those who obey him the source of eternal salvation,
10 being designated by God as a high priest according to the order of Melchizedek.
True.RD said:
We understand you, and Pate. Your gospel, "good news, as pertaining to our salvation/justification, as outlined in 1 Cor. 15:1-4 KJV,is not that Christ died for our sins, as you assert that Christ did not die for our sins/sin debt, as you cannot agreed that He did, since you assert that the law, that defines our future yet uncommitted sins/sin debt when He died, was destroyed, made void, at the cross, and thus there is no sin debt incurred, for which to die, and thus no condemnation/judgment, for which the Saviour could take, IN OUR PLACE. Thus, you assert that He died in vain. Instead, you satanically assert that He did not die for our sins, but died to destroy, make vain the law( although not one scripture, in either the OT, or NT, expounds that His death was necessary, to make that happen,or how His death would affect destroying the law,but scripture does testify of the "sacrificial substitute," death, by blood, to satisfy the demands of the law, but not destroy it), so that no one can be condemned, judged by that the law, since that law no longer exists=no law, no transgression/sin, resulting sin debt.
Thus, you/Pate on record, assert that the Saviour did not take our place, in judgment, condemnation, as our substitute, "FOR," dying for us breaking, by definition, the existing holy law of God, to satisfy justice, but instead died to eliminate any possible judgment, condemnation, by destroying, making vain, His own holy, spiritual law.
Thus, you/Pate, on record, reject SUBSTITUTIONARY ATONEMENT, replacing it with "Destroy the law, make it void, so that a substitute to take the judgment, condemnation, and resulting penalty for breaking that law is not necessary, since the law defining the sin debt, and the need for a substitute, its principle, is not needed."
Priest hood implies there is yet something to do- works service administer
And not needing baptism by water or the lord’s supper or foot washing or Lord’s Prayer or well anything as nothing applies there needs no priests
or salvation? I mean the law applies or not? Points out sin need of Grace etc etc...
(Heb 8:6 KJV) But now hath he obtained a more excellent ministry, by how much also he is the mediator of a better covenant, which was established upon better promises.
"was established" is past tense.
Correct!
The Body of Christ is the Israel of God.
(Gal 6:16) Peace and mercy to all who follow this rule—to the Israel of God.
There is something to do:
(1 Peter 2:9) But you are a chosen people, a royal priesthood, a holy nation, God’s special possession, that you may declare the praises of him who called you out of darkness into his wonderful light.
Yup...
What do you do when you commit a sin? Something that is clearly described a sin in the Law of Moses.