glorydaz
Well-known member
I'm just going by what I read in Peter.
ECT What Kind of Death?
- Thread starter Jerry Shugart
- Start date
I'm just going by what I read in Peter.
Jerry Shugart
Well-known member
So you are saying that those who received John's epistle had a done deal in regard to salvation but those who received Peter's epistle did not have a done deal?
What about this passage from the pen of Peter?:
"Receiving the end of your faith, even the salvation of your souls. Of which salvation the prophets have enquired and searched diligently, who prophesied of the grace that should come unto you" (1 Pet.1:9).
glorydaz
Well-known member
I didn't say either of those things, did I?
Perhaps the "done deal" isn't the same deal at all.
Jerry Shugart
Well-known member
It's easy to see that in Anderson's teaching that he had overlapping dispensations. He had a Pentecostal dispensation which started at Acts 2 and he made it plain that that dispensation does not belong to those in the Body. He had that dispensation ending in Acts 28. And you can search all of his writings until you are blue in the face for anywhere that he ever said that a new dispensation began there.
Imagine that! He never said that a dispensation began at Acts 28 and so anyone who will use their brain can know that he never taught Acts 28 dispensationalism which has a dispensation beginning there.
If you are right then quote him ever saying that a new dispensation began at Acts 28. Your whole argument cannot be right unless you can prove that he started a new dispensation then.
Then he spoke of another dispensation that began between the early chapters of Acts and the later chapters.
In case you don't know it the scheme of Acts 28 dispensationalism has no dispensation beginning then.
But in your ignorance you cannot even understand these simple things.
Jerry Shugart
Well-known member
Here is what you said:
Do you deny that in the following passage that those who received Peter's epistles had a salvation which was a done deal?:
"Receiving the end of your faith, even the salvation of your souls. Of which salvation the prophets have enquired and searched diligently, who prophesied of the grace that should come unto you" (1 Pet.1:9).
Hi Jerry , and why is the CONTEXT is Jewish ?/
And in verse 24 where Martha says " I know he shall rise again in the resurrection at the last day , IS WHEN ??
In verse 25 , the verb , YET SHALL HE LIVE / ZAO is in the Greek FUTURE TENSE , why is that , ""
And when does it happen ??
dan p
Jerry Shugart
Well-known member
Dan, the reason the context is Jewish is because the Lord Jesus' ministry was to the lost sheep of the house of Israel.
And the resurrection referred to is the resurrection which will take place on the last day prior to the coming earthly kingdom.
However, when Israel was set aside then the Jewish believers received a new inheritance when they were baptized into the Body of Christ. Now they will be raised up at the same time as all those belonging to the Body of Christ:
"For by one Spirit are we all baptized into one body, whether we be Jews or Gentiles, whether we be bond or free; and have been all made to drink into one Spirit" (1 Cor.12:13).
For some reason you are under the impression that not all of the first century Jewish believers were baptized into the Body of Christ.
Why do you think that only some of them were baptized into the Body? Surely you can give verses from the Scriptures which support your view. I will wait for them.
Hi Jerry and I have times quoted 2 Cor 3:13-15 and from Moses until THEN and even until Paul's time Jews were being set aside and ABOLISHED and Paul's ministry to Israel was minimal and in Acts 28:28 was the third PRONOUNCEMENT , Acts 13:46 and Acts 18:6 and Acts 28:28 , YOU ARE SET ASIDE !!
dan p
glorydaz
Well-known member
So you're refusing to answer my questions again.
Why is it, Jerry, that you think you can continue to ask the exact same question over and over again, without ever even addressing what I have said? A dialogue would be nice....a back and forth. I'm not sure how long I can remain patient with you if you keep this up.
Hi and in Acts 18:4-8 , Paul was preaching to Jews !!
In Acts 21:21 the Elders and James were concerned about Paul as Acts 21:21 that Paul was preaching a DEPARTURE from Moses and teaching against Circumcision , nor to walk by the Jewish CUSTOMS !!
We also see in 2 Peter 3:15 and 16 that the Jews were not understanding what Paul was instructing and were TWISTING his writing to their own DISTRUCTION !!
dan p
Jerry Shugart
Well-known member
You asked a question and I answered it. Here is your question:
Then I quoted you saying those things. Ask me another question and I will answer it. Then I will ask you a question.
Fair?
Jerry Shugart
Well-known member
So what's your point? I am having a difficlt time understand what you said in your last post.
Sorry!
glorydaz
Well-known member
You quoted me saying this, but you didn't answer anything.
Quote Originally Posted by glorydaz View Post
I don't know, Jerry. I'm trying to understand why Peter does not say the same things that Paul does. True, some things sound similar, but not as the "already done deal" that our salvation is. Nothing about being baptised by the Spirit into the body of Christ....or being created IN HIM as new creatures. Why is there such a difference if they are the same thing?
Jerry Shugart
Well-known member
glorydaz
Well-known member
Really? :idunno:
Jerry Shugart
Well-known member
Yes, really! To recap, you said in "bold":
To your remarks about the salvation of the Jews not being a done deal I then said:
So you are saying that those who received John's epistle had a done deal in regard to salvation but those who received Peter's epistle did not have a done deal?
What about this passage from the pen of Peter?:
"Receiving the end of your faith, even the salvation of your souls. Of which salvation the prophets have enquired and searched diligently, who prophesied of the grace that should come unto you" (1 Pet.1:9).
What about this passage from the pen of Peter?:
"Receiving the end of your faith, even the salvation of your souls. Of which salvation the prophets have enquired and searched diligently, who prophesied of the grace that should come unto you" (1 Pet.1:9).
Then you said:
Again, you did say the following:
glorydaz
Well-known member
Peter said the grace that "should come", as if it was a future event.
Jerry Shugart
Well-known member
The prophets "prophesied of the grace that should come." Peter was not speaking of grace coming to them in the future. In fact, Peter described them as being the people of God (1 Peter.2:10) and then later in the same chapter he tells them that the Lord bare their sins in His own body on the tree (1 Pet.2:24.
Peter also told them that they were redeemed by the precious blood of the Lord Jesus and that they are "born again"!
How can you even imagine that their salvation was not as much as a "done deal" as the Gentile's?
Hi , Jerry and in 1 Peter 1:10 it reads Of which salvation the prophets inquired and searched diligently who prophesied of the GRACE UNTO YOU !!
The words that the KJV translated ( THAT SHOULD COME ) were added by the Translators !!
Grace here , just means the GRACE /CHARIS / FAVOR of God and not the dispensation of God !!
In 1 Peter 2:9 , the B O C is NOT a Royal Priesthood !!
It is YET FUTURE because Israel was SET ASIDE as 2 Cor 3:13-15 was written about Israel as well as Isa 6 and Luke 13:6-9 and many other verses !!
dan p
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