The word "compound" is not limited to just two things. And just because the example I gave only speaks of two things does not mean that the "compound unity" in regard to God is limited to just two entities.
Here we see a "compound unity" in regard to God:
"And God said, Let us make man in our image, after our likeness... So God created man in his own image" (Gen1:26,27).
We've been over that also: your God "knows" evil.
My heavenly Father YHWH does not know evil.
The God I worship knows the evil things which some men do:
"For My eyes are on all their ways; they are not hidden from My face, nor is their iniquity concealed from My eyes" (Jer.16:17).
Does the God you worship not know the evil deeds of some men?
The Seven Eyes of YHWH are not YHWH Himself, but as it is written: the Eyes of YHWH.
Behold, upon one Stone whose name is Tzemach-Branch: Seven Eyes, (Zec 3:9).
And those Seven are the Eyes of YHWH sent forth into all His Land, (Zec 4:10).
And the same are the Seven Spirits before His throne, (Rev 5:6).
Just as Noah found grace in the Eyes of YHWH, (Gen 6:8).
Uriel, Raphael, Raguel, Miykael, Sariel-Yisrael, Gabriel, Raamiel.
From a different thread where you were not:
EDIT: WHAT FOLLOWS BELOW IS FROM THIS POST
QUOTE:]The only legitimate conclusion is that they rendered Elohim as Theos in the LXX version of Genesis 1:26 because they were clearly using Theos as a replacement word, borrowed from Greek, for the intensive plural Elohim. That means they are using Theos as an intensive plural and the characteristics of the word therefore have to change in order for the understanding to come through in the translation. It is blatantly obvious, crying out for attention, and yet ignored by every commentator I can think of. What led me in this direction is an even more critical situation that reaches down to the very core of what any one of us here believes. Does our heavenly Father "know" evil? There really is only one place this can directly be derived from what is written. And this kind of "knowing" is the same intimate knowledge spoken of in Genesis 4:1 where it is written that Adam "knew" his wife Eve and she conceived. Does our heavenly Father "know" evil in this intimate way? This is intended for good so my own personal advice would be to not even answer if you are inclined to answer in the affirmative after reading what follows below. It would be better to contemplate, study, pray over such things, and come back to this at a later time as you feel led, (rather than to risk the possibility of blaspheming just so as to defend a doctrine or paradigm). So again I say, rhetorically, (and not expecting an answer especially if it might be in the affirmative), does our heavenly Father "know" evil? According to the Masoretic text they say He does but according to the Septuagint the Tetragrammaton was not originally in the pertinent text:
Genesis 3:22-23 LXX
22 και ειπεν ο θεος ιδου αδαμ γεγονεν ως εις εξ ημων του γινωσκειν καλον και πονηρον και νυν μηποτε εκτεινη την χειρα και λαβη του ξυλου της ζωης και φαγη και ζησεται εις τον αιωνα
23 και εξαπεστειλεν αυτον κυριος ο θεος εκ του παραδεισου της τρυφης εργαζεσθαι την γην εξ ης ελημφθη
Genesis 3:22-23 Septuagint (Brenton Translation)
22 And God said, Behold, Adam is become as one of us, to know good and evil, and now lest at any time he stretch forth his hand, and take of the tree of life and eat, and so he shall live forever -
23 So the Lord God sent him forth out of the garden of Delight to cultivate the ground out of which he was taken.
Genesis 3:22-23 Restored Name KJV (Hebrew Text)
3:22 And YHWH Elohim said, Behold, the man is become as one of us, to know good and evil: and now, lest he put forth his hand, and take also of the tree of life, and eat, and live for ever:
3:23 Therefore YHWH Elohim sent him forth from the garden of Eden, to till the ground from whence he was taken.
If from the Septuagint we restore ο θεος, (ho Theos), to Elohim, (which surely is what is meant), then the Septuagint is telling us that the Tetragrammaton was not in the Hebrew text of Genesis 3:22 which they used to render the Hebrew into Greek because Kurios is not in the Septuagint text. In addition, if this be true, it is possible and even more likely that the second portion of the verse becomes an interrogative, as if [the] Elohim were asking, "And now, lest he put forth his hand, and take also of the tree of life, and eat, and live for ever?" In other words [the] Elohim are shown as not fully knowing all that the Father knows but, unlike the Father, they apparently have known good and evil, and therefore there is a questioning among them. We therefore have a reading that is anywhere from one thousand to thirteen hundred years earlier than the current form of the Masoretic Hebrew text which did not contain the Name of the Father in Genesis 3:22 as the Masoretic now does. And what if indeed the second portion of verse twenty-two is an interrogative which the Father answers to the Elohim by sending the man forth from the garden of Eden? Perhaps this is why the statement which follows in the next verse commences with a word equivalent to "therefore" as this makes perfect sense:
Genesis 3:22-23
3:22 And [the] Elohim said, Behold, the man is become as one of us, to know good and evil: and now, lest he put forth his hand, and take also of the tree of life, and eat, and live for ever?
3:23 Therefore YHWH Elohim sent him forth from the garden of Eden, to till the ground from whence he was taken.
This gives us great insight into what those who rendered the Septuagint were thinking, (some three hundred years before the advent of Messiah and therefore without bias). It also gives us insight into what may have occurred with the Masoretic Hebrew text, which was compiled some 1000 to 1300 years later, for there are quite a few places where the Tetragrammaton appears to have been inserted into the text which are not found in the Septuagint. Were the Masoretes a little too overzealous in an effort to maintain the strict monotheism which separated them from the Christian doctrines of that time, (700-1000AD)? If they were [
then clearly] they went too far in Genesis 3:22 because I know from what is written elsewhere that my heavenly Father does not know evil. When I saw this I saw Genesis 1:26.
[END QUOTE.
http://theologyonline.com/showthrea...throus-God-of-John-1-1&p=4710777&#post4710777
Here is the point yet again Jerry Shugart, (for you and I already discussed this).
Your preferred version derives from the Hebrew Masorete Text:
Genesis 3:22-23 Restored Name KJV (Hebrew Text)
3:22 And YHWH Elohim said, Behold, the man is become as one of us, to know good and evil: and now, lest he put forth his hand, and take also of the tree of life, and eat, and live for ever:
Your preferred version of this passage inserts the Tetragrammaton, which is the Name of the Father, and therefore makes Him to intimately "know" evil because that is exactly how that same word is employed in the very next section where Adam "knows" Eve, his wife, and she conceives and brings forth Cain, and says,
"I have gotten a man from YHWH", (Masorete Hebrew Text of Gen 4:1). However the LXX Septuagint does not read the same just as the passage quoted above does not read the same:
Genesis 3:22-23
22 And [the] Elohim said, Behold, Adam is become as one of us, to know good and evil, and now lest at any time he stretch forth his hand, and take of the tree of life and eat? and so he shall live forever?
23 So YHWH Elohim sent him forth out of the garden of Delight to cultivate the ground out of which he was taken.
It is either Elohim or the Elohim which apparently "know" both good and evil.
The Father
YHWH Elohim does not "know" evil.
