Is KJV-only reasoning double-minded?

Logos1560

New member
For me, my personal choice is the KJV because it expresses God's word better than all others that I have ever read.

Have you ever read the 1537 Matthew's Bible or the 1560 Geneva Bible?

In at least some places one of the pre-1611 English Bibles is better or more accurate than the KJV when compared to the same original language text editions.

In some places the KJV changed renderings in the pre-1611 English Bibles that were used to advocate congregational church government views or Presbyterian church government views to renderings that were more favorable to Church of England episcopal church government views.
 

Logos1560

New member
In the course of time, as language, literature, printing, and scholarship came to its zenith for English speaking people, God, in His providence and by many visible and invisible means, allowed His perfect written word to appear, at once, in modern English, sanctioned by God's representative, for the purpose of saving souls and making wise the simple throughout the growing British Empire.

Where do the Scriptures teach that all your suggested qualifications are the ones to use to decide which translation should be used?

The important matter of accuracy when compared to the preserved Scriptures in the original languages is not in your list.

The Scriptures do not teach that the word of God is bound or limited to the textual criticism decisions and translation decisions of one exclusive group of Church of England men in 1611.

The burden of proof rests upon all later challenges to this status to fulfill at least these qualifications if not exceed them. As they cannot, and especially as they differ from each other, they must, therefore, be the enemy's tool for division.

The burden of proof rests on those who make positive, exclusive claims for one translation without any sound, scriptural case for them.

The 1560 Geneva Bible was the widely-read, accepted, believed, and loved English Bible before the KJV was ever made.

The makers of the KJV introduced many changes to the pre-1611 Reformation English Bible [the Geneva Bible]. Some of the changes were borrowed from the 1582 Roman Catholic Rheims New Testament. Some changes were to make renderings in some places more favorable to Church of England doctrinal views and to the divine-right-of-kings view of James I.

The 1611 KJV edition was clearly not perfect, having several errors. The 1611 KJV edition was considered improvable, revisable, and correctable by later editors and printers, not perfect.

The varying editions of the KJV printed in the 1600's differ in a number of places from the varying editions of the KJV printed in the 1700's.

The varying editions of the KJV printed in the 1700's differ in a number of places from the varying editions of the KJV printed in the 1800's. I have been comparing over 400 editions of the KJV printed from 1611 until today in over 2,000 places, and I know from first-hand examination many of the places where they differ from each other.
 

George Affleck

TOL Subscriber
Where do the Scriptures teach that all your suggested qualifications are the ones to use to decide which translation should be used?

Blah blah blah.

I am not asking you to comment on the truth of the qualifications I listed. That is a matter of opinion which we obviously do not share.

I want to know if you would class what I said as double-minded, and, if so, on what grounds? If you can't do that objectively, please say so.
 

Logos1560

New member
Originally Posted by Logos1560
Where do the Scriptures teach that all your suggested qualifications are the ones to use to decide which translation should be used?

I am not asking you to comment on the truth of the qualifications I listed. That is a matter of opinion which we obviously do not share.

Are you suggesting or assuming that they are true based on your own subjective opinions or by begging the question?

Would you suggest that non-scriptural or unscriptural qualifications determine which Bible translation should be used?

If your qualifications for a Bible translation were true, sound, and objective, could they not be consistently applied both before and after 1611 and be applied to Bible translations in all major languages?
 

HisServant

New member
I find that most people that cling to the KJV and condemn all others, do so because it best supports their historic and/or preconceived doctrines and their minds are closed.

After my research into the 1611 AV and its translators... i've come to the conclusion that it wasn't an honest attempt at all at providing a better translation.. it was created due to political purposes.
 

Wick Stick

Well-known member
I'm not a KJV-only-ist, but I pretty much only use the KJV of the Bible.

I don't think the KJV is the best English translation. It's probably not even in the top 5.

But, I have half+ the Bible memorized from the KJV. So if I want to look up a verse that I remember, I'm using the KJV.

Further, I've been using Strong's concordance and Thayer's lexicon alongside my KJV for so long, that I now have a pretty good idea of what Greek word is behind the English word at a glance. So, it's also my choice for reading/studying the Bible.

Jarrod
 

patrick jane

BANNED
Banned
I'm not a KJV-only-ist, but I pretty much only use the KJV of the Bible.

I don't think the KJV is the best English translation. It's probably not even in the top 5.

But, I have half+ the Bible memorized from the KJV. So if I want to look up a verse that I remember, I'm using the KJV.

Further, I've been using Strong's concordance and Thayer's lexicon alongside my KJV for so long, that I now have a pretty good idea of what Greek word is behind the English word at a glance. So, it's also my choice for reading/studying the Bible.

Jarrod

Pretty impressive - you have half+ the Bible memorized - :salute:
 

patrick jane

BANNED
Banned
I was brought up using the KJV. But I do not fully trust it. And I do not trust the way most see in it. This why I have many translations. My new favorite is the AENT. I question the Greek to English translations.

It's too late to question your Bibles. Go back to KJV now that your Gold.
 

Logos1560

New member
It's too late to question your Bibles.

Questioning translation decisions of men would not be the same thing as questioning the original language Scriptures given by inspiration of God.

Evidently, the makers of the KJV questioned some decisions in the pre-1611 English Bibles of which the KJV was a revision since they changed them. The makers of the KJV rejected the one-perfect-translation theory of their day--the Latin Vulgate-only theory.
 

George Affleck

TOL Subscriber
Are you suggesting or assuming that they are true based on your own subjective opinions or by begging the question?

Would you suggest that non-scriptural or unscriptural qualifications determine which Bible translation should be used?

If your qualifications for a Bible translation were true, sound, and objective, could they not be consistently applied both before and after 1611 and be applied to Bible translations in all major languages?

OK
It's obvious you either can't or don't want to answer the question.
Have a nice day.
 

Logos1560

New member
It's obvious you either can't or don't want to answer the question.

You do not answer my questions to you, and you avoid discussing my points concerning what you asserted.

What was the necessary point of your question when if you applied what I had stated consistently you would already know the answer?

Typical KJV-only reasoning could easily and soundly be considered double-minded in the following way. It is reasoning with one mind or mindset [one set of measures, standards, or principles] concerning one English translation [the KJV] while reasoning with a different mind or mindset [a different set of measures, standards, or principles] concerning other English translations. Being double-minded would be similar if not the same thing as using double standards or unjust measures. According to what the Scriptures teach, reasoning that uses inconsistent, unjust divers measures would be wrong.
 

Wick Stick

Well-known member
No, some are from the Hebrew, or Aramaic.

The language Jesus spoke.
Not if we're talking about the KJV. It's translated from the Textus Receptus, a Greek text. At least that's the story.

Probably, the translators stole a whole bunch from Wycliffe's translation, and supplemented the holes in the Greek text using the Vulgate.

Jarrod
 

Logos1560

New member
Probably, the translators stole a whole bunch from Wycliffe's translation, and supplemented the holes in the Greek text using the Vulgate.

It is not known that the KJV translators consulted any copy of Wycliffe's Bible.

The actual pre-1611 English Bibles of which the KJV was a revision according to the rules given to the translators were Tyndale's Bible, Coverdale's Bible, Matthew's Bible, Great Bible, Geneva Bible, and the Bishops' Bible.

The first rule given to the makers of the KJV was as follows: "The ordinary Bible read in the church, commonly called the Bishops' Bible, to be followed and as little altered as the original will permit."
 

Logos1560

New member
Not if we're talking about the KJV. It's translated from the Textus Receptus, a Greek text.

The KJV was actually more a revision of earlier English Bibles than it was a new original translation. Over 50% and perhaps as much as 70% or more of the English renderings in the KJV were borrowed from earlier English Bibles.

In some places, the makers of the KJV borrowed renderings from the 1582 Roman Catholic Rheims New Testament translated from an edition of the Latin Vulgate.

When they did any translating for the New Testament, the makers of the KJV made use of an edition of the Textus Receptus.
 

Logos1560

New member
After my research into the 1611 AV and its translators... i've come to the conclusion that it wasn't an honest attempt at all at providing a better translation.. it was created due to political purposes.

King James I did order the making of another English Bible for his own political purposes.

He considered the accepted and loved Geneva Bible to be a problem for his divine-right-of-kings view, and he wanted to replace or supplant it.
 
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