Right Divider
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LOL :banana:
Theology Club: The Rapture is Found in the Epistle of James
- Thread starter Jerry Shugart
- Start date
Jerry Shugart
Well-known member
There is something said about the Husbandman in chapter 15 but it says nothing about His coming. You are just maling things up in the hope that no one will notice that you refused to address what I said here about the Husbandman:
"Be patient therefore, brethren, unto the coming of the Lord. Behold, the husbandman waiteth for the precious fruit of the earth, and hath long patience for it, until he receive the early and latter rain. Be ye also patient; stablish your hearts: for the coming of the Lord draweth nigh (eggizo) " (Jas.5:7-8).
The Greek word translated "draweth nigh" is eggizo and that word means "to be imminent" (A Greek English Lexicon, Liddell & Scott [Oxford: Clarendon Press, 1940], 467).
Paul Sadler, one of the chief spokesmen within the Neo-MAD movement, makes it plain that the rapture is described as being "imminent":
"According to Paul's gospel the Rapture is 'imminent,' that is, it could take place at any moment. There are no signs, times, or seasons that will precede this glorious event" [emphasis mine] (Sadler, "The Present Obsession With the Anti-Christ," The Berean Searchlight, June, 1999, 7).
There is only one appearing of the Lord Jesus which can be described as being imminent and that is the rapture. So James' words at 5:7-8 are speaking of the Lord Jesus' coming at the rapture.
Since you refuse to even attempt to answer these facts then perhaps Right Divider will answer what I said.
Jerry Shugart
Well-known member
Since you consider yourself an expert on the gospel of Christ then you will have no problem answer this question:
When was the gospel of Christ which saved preached to the Jew first?
"For I am not ashamed of the gospel of Christ: for it is the power of God unto salvation to every one that believeth; to the Jew first, and also to the Greek" (Ro.1:16).
Why won't you answer? This should be easy for you to answer since you consider yourself an expert on the gospel of Christ.
SaulToPaul 2
Well-known member
Read chapters 14-16, to get the entire picture.
Is the Rapture found in the 4 gospels?
SaulToPaul 2
Well-known member
Yep, it is impossible to find any Rapture in James.
It amazes me that Jerry would twist the 2nd Coming so badly, just to prove Andersen and/or O'Hair right. :kookoo:
Jerry Shugart
Well-known member
Here is what you said:
By the time when one of the Jews had believed that Jesus is the Christ they had already received life and were born of God:
"But these are written, that ye might believe that Jesus is the Christ, the Son of God; and that believing ye might have life through his name" (Jn.20:31).
"Whosoever believeth that Jesus is the Christ is born of God" (1 Jn.5:1).
How could a Jew who had already received life and therefore saved when he believed that Jesus is the Christ be saved AGAIN by believing that Christ died for our sins?
He was not saved by believing that Christ died for our sins because he was already saved.
SaulToPaul 2
Well-known member
So, someone could believe Jesus is the Christ and deny 1 Cor 15:1-4, yet still be in the Body?
Think about how foolish that is.
Jerry Shugart
Well-known member
You can say that only because you close your eyes to the truth that James speaks of an "imminent" coming of the Lord Jesus. You just stick your head in the sand and pretend that James said no such thing.
You also run and hide from the following passage from the book of Hebrews demonstrates that the Jewish believers were expecting an "imminent" return of the Lord Jesus:
"So Christ was once offered to bear the sins of many; and unto them that look (apekdechomai) for him shall he appear the second time without sin unto salvation" (Heb.9:28).
Here the Greek word apekdechomai is used and it means "to expect, wait or look for" (The Analytical Greek Lexicon Revised, 37).
If the "appearing" of the Lord Jesus could not happen until certain prophesised events occured (such as the abomination of desolation of Matthew 24:15) then it is evident that before those events happened no one would be looking for that appearance, much less eagerly expecting that appearance:
apekdechomai: "To await eagerly or expectantly for some future event...to look forward eagerly, to await expectantly" (Greek-English Lexicon of the New Testament Based on Semantic Domains; Volume 2, ed. Louw and Nida, 296).
According to your ideas the author of Hebrews was telling the Jewish believers to be looking for the Lord's appearance and waiting expectantly for the Lord's appearance even though he knew that he could not possibly appear at that time.
That is absurd and you are too smart to believe that illogical idea.
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SaulToPaul 2
Well-known member
Jerry Shugart
Well-known member
I never said that. Of course those who had already received life by believing that Jesus is the Christ could also believe the gospel that Christ died for our sins.
You never answered what I said to your statement here:
By the time when one of the Jews had believed that Jesus is the Christ they had already received life and were born of God:
"But these are written, that ye might believe that Jesus is the Christ, the Son of God; and that believing ye might have life through his name" (Jn.20:31).
"Whosoever believeth that Jesus is the Christ is born of God" (1 Jn.5:1).
How could a Jew who had already received life and therefore saved when he believed that Jesus is the Christ be saved AGAIN by believing that Christ died for our sins?
He was not saved by believing that Christ died for our sins because he was already saved.
SaulToPaul 2
Well-known member
Is it possible that a member of the Body could believe Jesus is the Christ, yet deny 1 Cor 15:1-4?
Clear it up for us.
SaulToPaul 2
Well-known member
Jerry Shugart
Well-known member
Once again you did not even address anything which I said in my last post. And it is obvious to anyone with an open mind that it is not the second coming.
Do you never tire of embarrassing yourself by refusing to even address my points and instead just sticking your head in the sand?
SaulToPaul 2
Well-known member
I disagree. It is obvious that it is the 2nd Coming.
Unquestionable.
Have you read John 14-16 yet, to get the entire picture?
Jerry Shugart
Well-known member
Why did you not say anything about John's words at John 20:31.
And you have not even come close to proving that I John is doctrine for the coming tribulation. During the tribulation the law will once again be in force so why would the author of Hebrews tell the Christian believers this?:
"For there is verily an annulling of the commandment going before for the weakness and unprofitableness thereof. For the law made nothing perfect, but the bringing in of a better hope did...By so much was Jesus made a surety of a better testament" (Heb.7:18-19,22).
SaulToPaul 2
Well-known member
Jerry Shugart
Well-known member
Once again you just ignore the evidence which I gave you to prove that you are wrong. It is easy to see that your final authority is not the Bible but instead the teaching within the Neo-MAD community.
You will defend their teaching to the hilt but you just ignore what the Scriptures reveal.
Sad!
SaulToPaul 2
Well-known member
Have you reread John 14-16 yet?
SaulToPaul 2
Well-known member
When did the Lord ever tell the little flock they were no longer to keep the law?