Genesis 'where are you' is a rhetorical question that God fully knew the answer to. This is standard Open Theist/classical theist understanding. An omniscient God knows the past and present exhaustively and nothing is hidden from His sight (other verse). To say that Satan and Adam knew where Adam was at the moment, but not God, is not biblical Open Theism (maybe your version). Just because we take more verses at face value (rightly so) does not mean there is no figurative stuff in Scripture (or anthropomorphism, rhetorical devices, etc.).
Why do you assume Satan knew where Adam was?
You're not very bright.
The longer one thinks about it, the more one realizes there is no contradiction. God's attributes are not pitted against one another such that God's omniscience shackles His omnipotence. Nor is it the case that God's omnipotence limits His omniscience.
However the more one learns about your particular brand of open thiesm, the more one realizes just how small your god is and just how little you think of both God's omniscience and His omnipotence.
It is not God's abilities that I believe to be limited, except by Him; it is existence/creation that I believe to be limited. God does not see, or know, that which does not exist to be seen or known; not because God is limited, but because those things do not exist.
You believe God is omnipresent, but He has made it clear He will not be present in the Lake of Fire, so what now?
Did you know that one cannot understand something without knowing it first?
:doh:
He understands that which He knows; He does not know that which does not exist, and thus cannot be known.
And he also does not have to know that which He wishes not to, and yet this does not limit His understanding of that which He knows.
If God is infinite in His understanding, what does that suggest about His knowledge?
It suggests that you neither understand, or know, knowledge and understanding.
Why do you insist on blurring the clear teachings of scripture by interpreting them in light of obscure passages?
I take Him at His word over the words of men.
And what you think is clear is your preconceived ideas being read into it, by you.
This appearance of God in Gen 18:21 is a theophany. Theophanies are often self limiting appearances of God. God, Who is invisible if 1 Tim 1:17 is true, appears visibly. God, Who cannot be contained by Heaven if 1 Kings 8:27 is true, comes down to meet with Abraham. If we use your method of interpretation here we will not only deny God's omniscience, we will also deny His omnipresence and His invisibility.
:doh:
Even in a limited form He would not have had to go see if the outcries were true, as He would have known before the theophany, if your theology is correct.
Or, we can understand that God, taking on Human attributes in this passage, walks, talks and acts in human ways in order to interact with Abraham and appear before him as three Men, rather than as an invisible, omnipresent, omniscient being. If you take your theology of the attributes of God solely from your understanding of any particular Theophany, you will inevitably have a more limited God than you would if you actually took the whole of scripture into consideration.
So God had to talk to Abraham this way because Abraham was too ignorant to understand God as omnipotent, omniscient and omnipresent; but we are more intelligent than Abraham, so we can understand it when Abraham could not?
Are you also going to tell me this is the reason Abraham bargained with God and why God didn't just tell Abraham there weren't that many righteous people in the two cities, but rather kept the bargaining going?
So you believe that this passage is in direct contradiction with the omnipresent God of psalm 139?
How does Psalm 139 paint God as omnipresent?
David is saying that God is always with him. And in the end he even asks God to search him to see if there is anything wicked in him.
Search me, O God, and know my heart;
Try me, and know my anxieties;
And see if
there is any wicked way in me,
And lead me in the way everlasting
-Psalm 139:23-24
