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Thread: Does Open Theism Question/dispute the Omniscience of God

  1. #346
    Over 4000 post club Rosenritter's Avatar
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    Quote Originally Posted by Lon View Post
    Aren't you conceding that the will is in bondage between one of two? How can a will in bondage be a free will?
    I cannot see "will in bondage" in any of the previous text, so no, that wasn't the meaning at all.

    Besides, that would render Christ's admonition useless. What would be the point of telling the Pharisees that they could not serve both God and mammon unless they had a choice over which they would (will) serve?

    Serve does NOT mean "without will" or "with an enslaved will" (implying no will?) That's not the meaning.
    Last edited by Rosenritter; Yesterday at 10:18 PM.

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    A will in bondage is still a will. It's equivalent to a freewill in bondage and even a libertarian free will in bondage.

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  4. #348
    Over 4000 post club Rosenritter's Avatar
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    Quote Originally Posted by Rosenritter View Post
    2. Displeasure in disobedience is only applicable when the subject had its own will.
    Quote Originally Posted by Lon View Post
    Again, I believe this an assumption unfounded: A child with malaria didn't 'choose' the disease, but the consequence is the same.
    How do you associate "displeasure in disobedience" with "a child with malaria?"

    No police force in the world would prosecute someone for trespassing if they had been kidnapped and hauled to the property against their will, let alone if the charges were brought by the property owner who was also the kidnapper. Yet this is precisely the type of scenario that would exist if God creates subjects with no possibility of obedience and then prosecutes them for that same impossibility that he built into them. To be kidnapped against your will and then executed for trespass? This is the love of God? Doesn't sound like it.

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