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Thread: Acts 13-Interplanner's Continuous Rebellion

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    Silver Member SaulToPaul's Avatar
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    Acts 13-Interplanner's Continuous Rebellion

    After being corrected over and over, why does IP continually pervert the scriptures and make
    "the promise" in this passage into "all of the promises"? Because he has an agenda, and is dishonest.


    Acts 13
    13:23 Of this man's seed hath God according to his promise raised unto Israel a Saviour, Jesus:
    13:24 When John had first preached before his coming the baptism of repentance to all the people of Israel.
    13:25 And as John fulfilled his course, he said, Whom think ye that I am? I am not he. But, behold, there cometh one after me, whose shoes of his feet I am not worthy to loose.
    13:26 Men and brethren, children of the stock of Abraham, and whosoever among you feareth God, to you is the word of this salvation sent.
    13:27 For they that dwell at Jerusalem, and their rulers, because they knew him not, nor yet the voices of the prophets which are read every sabbath day, they have fulfilled them in condemning him.
    13:28 And though they found no cause of death in him, yet desired they Pilate that he should be slain.
    13:29 And when they had fulfilled all that was written of him, they took him down from the tree, and laid him in a sepulchre.
    13:30 But God raised him from the dead:
    13:31 And he was seen many days of them which came up with him from Galilee to Jerusalem, who are his witnesses unto the people.
    13:32 And we declare unto you glad tidings, how that the promise which was made unto the fathers,
    13:33 God hath fulfilled the same unto us their children, in that he hath raised up Jesus again; as it is also written in the second psalm, Thou art my Son, this day have I begotten thee.
    Quote Originally Posted by Interplanner View Post
    They can't compete with a real writer and grammar scholar
    Quote Originally Posted by Interplanner View Post
    You're too literal to get it.
    Quote Originally Posted by Interplanner View Post
    The New Covenant preceded the Old Covenant.

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    Quote Originally Posted by SaulToPaul View Post
    After being corrected over and over, why does IP continually pervert the scriptures and make
    "the promise" in this passage into "all of the promises"? Because he has an agenda, and is dishonest...
    That cracks me up, bro - it really does

    One aspect of what is behind your conclusions about the brother himself just because his understanding so differs from our own, is how married you yourselves are - not only to your own errors, but to skirting them, and or taking personal offence, and going all hostile, when they are brought up.

    Nevertheless, Rom. 5:8

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    Quote Originally Posted by Danoh View Post
    That cracks me up, bro - it really does

    One aspect of what is behind your conclusions about the brother himself just because his understanding so differs from our own, is how married you yourselves are - not only to your own errors, but to skirting them, and or taking personal offence, and going all hostile, when they are brought up.

    Nevertheless, Rom. 5:8
    huh?
    Quote Originally Posted by Interplanner View Post
    They can't compete with a real writer and grammar scholar
    Quote Originally Posted by Interplanner View Post
    You're too literal to get it.
    Quote Originally Posted by Interplanner View Post
    The New Covenant preceded the Old Covenant.

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    Silver Member SaulToPaul's Avatar
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    The passage is clear: a singular promise.
    IP has no right to change it to all of the promises, to promote his brand of preterism.
    Quote Originally Posted by Interplanner View Post
    They can't compete with a real writer and grammar scholar
    Quote Originally Posted by Interplanner View Post
    You're too literal to get it.
    Quote Originally Posted by Interplanner View Post
    The New Covenant preceded the Old Covenant.

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    Quote Originally Posted by SaulToPaul View Post
    huh?
    lol - see what I mean - your (words) study approach is off.

    Rom. 5:8

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    Quote Originally Posted by Danoh View Post
    lol - see what I mean - your (words) study approach is off.

    Rom. 5:8
    Nah. It's a singular promise.
    Quote Originally Posted by Interplanner View Post
    They can't compete with a real writer and grammar scholar
    Quote Originally Posted by Interplanner View Post
    You're too literal to get it.
    Quote Originally Posted by Interplanner View Post
    The New Covenant preceded the Old Covenant.

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    Way to go, you finally went proactive. So I read one.

    KJV or not, you don't handle causative expressions well. In Acts 13:33 the fulfillment is the resurrecting of Christ. There is no LITERAL promise that this would happen. It is the arrival or conclusion of them all; this is where the whole business was going so that the mission of Christ to the nations would burst forth.

    At some point, STP, you have to really get into the mind of the writer, not just the words.\

    Many people have said that there is no obvious connection between Ps 2 and the resurrection (the next verse of ch 13). But that is how CHRIST connected them. The completion of all things promised to Israel is in the establishing of Christ as the Son. Which has happened; he is enthroned, Acts 2:30, Eph 1:20.

    To show you again how mindless and simplistic your objection is, the NOUN promise is not in the text! It is the participial THINGS PROMISED.

    As for 15:17, you have a similar problem seeing the causes or the cause relations. The rebuilding of the tent was to allow the nations to seek the Lord. That seeking was going on right then in the discussion of the council because it was the real event they were dealing with. No one there is talking about X000 years in the future. The Greek 'hina' is not complicated at all: "so that..." The rebuilding happened so that the Gentiles would enter, and that entering was known for ages.

    What derails most of D'ism here is 'After this I will return...' because little green lights are set off in their minds that that has to be about the 2ND COMING. It is merely post exile. It is not a literal tent. Nothing in the quote is, actually. It is only a statement of humility. Christ the humble tent that welcomes. It is a return of sorts. It is a 'coming to you,' a visitation, and this time it had to be 'recognized' as such, Lk 19:44. Ie, it had to be discerned.

    So to PJ, I say, the reason I work at this is there is such fundamental misunderstanding of what is going on because D'ism is above all hostile to context and background if it means losing 2P2P.
    Last edited by Interplanner; September 2nd, 2017 at 05:20 PM. Reason: to add 'conclusion' and 'not a literal tent'
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    Just so we understand the overall working situation of the forum: the object is to arrive at the meaning of the Word. I long ago realized STP was in no position to be some kind of guide or leader, so his saying he was 'correcting' something is his vanity to work out. You have to have linguistic or background reasons in order for something to stand.
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    Quote Originally Posted by SaulToPaul View Post
    Nah. It's a singular promise.
    I wasn't talking about that, rather, about the fact that you do the same thing with other passages that you are asserting he has done with those in Acts 13.

    See, just as I have tried to point out to you at other times - you believed what you UNDERSTOOD I'd meant - NOT what I'd actually meant.

    Obviously you also do that with various Scriptures.

    Thus, my follow up to your "huh?" - 'see what I mean - your (words) study approach is off.'

    Prov. 27:17

    Nevertheless,

    Rom. 5:8

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    Quote Originally Posted by SaulToPaul View Post
    The passage is clear: a singular promise.
    IP has no right to change it to all of the promises, to promote his brand of preterism.
    True that, and no he does not have that right.

    Rom. 5:8

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    Quote Originally Posted by SaulToPaul View Post
    Nah. It's a singular promise.

    God Bless America

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    Quote Originally Posted by Tambora View Post




    It's not really a matter of the expression; there is nothing in any prophecy that says the resurrection of Christ was going to have the finality that Paul says it has here. That's because it provides everything through Christ or in Christ. The days of literalism are over. It is the forgiveness of sins--justification--and it is the mission of that afterwards.

    No other mention is made of the land here, and given the circumstances over in Judea, I'm not surprised.

    You people need to show why there is an outstanding need after this has taken place to have another go in Judea. It's irrelevant and it is not what the NT looks for when you read Gal, Col, Hebrews about the role of Judaism. That is what I have never understood about your view and you never talk about it. Like you are afraid something will fall apart. it will. So you just keep dictating it on scant evidence and on the notion that 'God would be a liar' inspite of bringing Israel back after exile.

    It's not a singular promise, it is a visionary one that changed the world and was meant to continue doing so.

    What or 'That which' God promised. 'Promise' is in a verb form. But in a history of Israel where the land and the kingdom have been covered--served their purpose--and in view of there not being a specific 'resurrection' promise, he is obviously saying it is all done through the resurrection.
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    Show us where the NT is as passionate as you are about a land promise, and why it would make sense to do so after the colossal 2nd failure of Israel (the two destructions).

    Choose carefully; your fav in Heb 8 doesn't count because all it means is the reconciliation of the two tribe groups.

    Rom 11 was about what had taken place in Paul's time; the Redeemer who came to Zion and took away sins.
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    Ie, how does the resurrection of Christ change all promise so that it makes it come true? It's the 'being a light to the nations' in v47. That's the 'all nations will be blessed in you (your Seed).'

    That is what was waiting to take place. It was now game on and Israel was resisting--often by making a fight for their land!
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    Quote Originally Posted by Interplanner View Post
    Ie, how does the resurrection of Christ change all promise so that it makes it come true? It's the 'being a light to the nations' in v47. That's the 'all nations will be blessed in you (your Seed).'

    That is what was waiting to take place. It was now game on and Israel was resisting--often by making a fight for their land!
    Land = inheritance.

    The inheritance of Jesus Christ and His church is the heavenly city. Hebrews 11:16; Galatians 4:26; Revelation Chapters 21& 22.
    "The immutable God never learned anything and never changed his mind. He knew everything from eternity."

    " The difference between faith and saving faith are the propositions believed."
    Gordon H. Clark

    "If a man be lost, God must not have the blame for it; but if a man be saved, God must have the glory of it."
    Charles Spurgeon

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