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Thread: Who actually revealed the "mystery" of the Gospel of grace ? Was Paul the first ?

  1. #211
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    Quote Originally Posted by dodge View Post
    God's sacred secret, revealed by Jesus and the Holy Spirit to the initiated chosen apostles, so that all who wish to be reconciled back to God can hear the gospel and learn of God's divine plan of salvation (Romans 10:17).

    The first to teach the "mystery" were the prophets, and when their prophecies were fulfilled in Jesus The "mystery" was revealed and walked the earth bringing truth,salvation,light, and freedom to those trapped in darkness.

    MAD has denied the very foundation of Jesus, His ministry, His Gospel, His teachings, and the revelation of the mystery by Jesus and the Holy Spirit.

    Jesus and the Holy Spirit revealed the "mystery" or there would have been no revelation of the "mystery".

    Eph 3:5
    Which in other ages was not made known unto the sons of men, as it is now revealed unto his holy apostles and prophets by the Spirit;

    Claiming Paul was the first to reveal the "mystery" denies the work of Jesus and the Holy Spirit.




    But if you read 3:5-6 closely and grammatically, it was not the FACT of the Gospel that was the mystery, nor the outreach to the nations. It call comes down to the prepositional phrase 'in the Gospel.' The mystery was that the fulfilled promises and benefits are true in the Gospel. Not in the Law, or you might say, not in the literal sense.

    You can check several trans and see that they are trying to put the weight of v6 on 'in the Gospel' as the Greek case shows. It is the same as saying 'in Christ.' Which is why the two are usually interchangeable.
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    Quote Originally Posted by Interplanner View Post
    But if you read 3:5-6 closely and grammatically, it was not the FACT of the Gospel that was the mystery, nor the outreach to the nations. It call comes down to the prepositional phrase 'in the Gospel.' The mystery was that the fulfilled promises and benefits are true in the Gospel. Not in the Law, or you might say, not in the literal sense.

    You can check several trans and see that they are trying to put the weight of v6 on 'in the Gospel' as the Greek case shows. It is the same as saying 'in Christ.' Which is why the two are usually interchangeable.
    Made up.
    Quote Originally Posted by Interplanner View Post
    They can't compete with a real writer and grammar scholar
    Quote Originally Posted by Interplanner View Post
    You're too literal to get it.
    Quote Originally Posted by Interplanner View Post
    The New Covenant preceded the Old Covenant.

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    Over 3000 post club lifeisgood's Avatar
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    Quote Originally Posted by jamie View Post
    No one has been saved by Jesus' death.
    Not what the Bible says.
    No man can come to God except through Christ. (Jn. 14:20)
    No man can come to Christ unless he comes through the Cross. (Jn. 3:16; Eph. 2:13–18)
    No man can come to the Cross without a denial of self. (Lk. 9:23–24)

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    Quote Originally Posted by lifeisgood View Post
    Not what the Bible says.
    Really? What does the Bible say?

    Does the Bible say when we were enemies we were reconciled to God through the death of His Son, much more, having been reconciled, we shall be saved by His life?

    Is that what the Bible says?

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    Quote Originally Posted by Interplanner View Post
    You can check several trans
    If you don't like what the Bible says, you can always find one to agree with what you already believe, instead of letting it correct you.
    Quote Originally Posted by Interplanner View Post
    They can't compete with a real writer and grammar scholar
    Quote Originally Posted by Interplanner View Post
    You're too literal to get it.
    Quote Originally Posted by Interplanner View Post
    The New Covenant preceded the Old Covenant.

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    Quote Originally Posted by Interplanner View Post
    The promised Gospel does bless all who have faith (who were cursed at one time) but I was pretty sure he meant 'those who curse Israel' or (later) those descended from Ishmael.

    I never imagined he would actually be saying what the NT says because he has been so hostile to doing so. I mean that it would be true in the Gospel or in Christ like the NT says. Because to him the whole concept of in Christ is called bonkers, and non-literal.
    Diversion. Obfuscation.
    Not a single cluster of living fruit was, or ever will be, harvested from the tree of legality. Law can only produce “dead works,” from which we need to have conscience purged just as much as from “wicked works.”

    C. H. Mackintosh


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    Quote Originally Posted by musterion View Post
    Diversion. Obfuscation.
    I have no idea what he even said.
    Quote Originally Posted by Interplanner View Post
    They can't compete with a real writer and grammar scholar
    Quote Originally Posted by Interplanner View Post
    You're too literal to get it.
    Quote Originally Posted by Interplanner View Post
    The New Covenant preceded the Old Covenant.

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    Quote Originally Posted by dodge View Post
    You might want to tell your buddy J.W. to start reading a bible as he does not know very much.

    Jesus fulfilled the law as in the law came by Moses but grace and truth came by Jesus Christ.
    Wow-another stunner-"start reading the bible!!!!" I had never heard that original head scratcher before!!!!


    Try this: You might want to start believing the bible.


    So there. Fun!!! I just "went over the top."


    You can't touch me, in terms of the ability to survey, and teach/understand, the bible, loser. My evidence? Your kindergarten "posts," full of silliness, emotionalism, and sophistry.
    Saint John W

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    Quote Originally Posted by john w View Post
    Wow-another stunner-"start reading the bible!!!!" I had never heard that original head scratcher before!!!!

    I prefer "start believing the Bible", saint john.
    That'll keep us from making a moulage out of things.
    Quote Originally Posted by Interplanner View Post
    They can't compete with a real writer and grammar scholar
    Quote Originally Posted by Interplanner View Post
    You're too literal to get it.
    Quote Originally Posted by Interplanner View Post
    The New Covenant preceded the Old Covenant.

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    Quote Originally Posted by john w View Post
    You can't touch me, in terms of the ability to survey, and teach/understand, the bible, loser. My evidence? Your kindergarten "posts," full of silliness, emotionalism, and sophistry.
    Yes, but can you recite the Preamble to the Emancipation Proclamation?

    I beat all.
    Quote Originally Posted by Interplanner View Post
    They can't compete with a real writer and grammar scholar
    Quote Originally Posted by Interplanner View Post
    You're too literal to get it.
    Quote Originally Posted by Interplanner View Post
    The New Covenant preceded the Old Covenant.

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    Quote Originally Posted by SaulToPaul View Post
    I prefer "start believing the Bible", saint john.
    That'll keep us from making a moulage out of things.
    These interlopers aren't talkin' to a few MAD wacko jerks, Mayor!
    Saint John W

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    Quote Originally Posted by SaulToPaul View Post
    Yes, but can you recite the Preamble to the Emancipation Proclamation?

    I beat all.
    W...... I got it.
    Saint John W

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    Quote Originally Posted by musterion View Post
    Diversion. Obfuscation.



    Obfuscation is to put on cartoons when you mention that these things are fulfilled in Christ already. That's what STP has done dozens of times, and why he is on ignore to me. No one can do NT theology right when 'in Christ' is lost, abuse, ignored, mixed up.
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    Quote Originally Posted by Interplanner View Post
    But if you read 3:5-6 closely and grammatically, it was not the FACT of the Gospel that was the mystery, nor the outreach to the nations. It call comes down to the prepositional phrase 'in the Gospel.' The mystery was that the fulfilled promises and benefits are true in the Gospel. Not in the Law, or you might say, not in the literal sense.

    You can check several trans and see that they are trying to put the weight of v6 on 'in the Gospel' as the Greek case shows. It is the same as saying 'in Christ.' Which is why the two are usually interchangeable.
    Quote Originally Posted by Interplanner View Post
    But if you read 3:5-6 closely and grammatically,.................
    Vs.
    Quote Originally Posted by Interplanner View Post
    It call comes down to...
    Thanks again, for checkin' in.
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    Quote Originally Posted by Interplanner View Post
    But if you read 3:5-6 closely and grammatically, it was not the FACT of the Gospel that was the mystery, nor the outreach to the nations. It call comes down to the prepositional phrase 'in the Gospel.' The mystery was that the fulfilled promises and benefits are true in the Gospel. Not in the Law, or you might say, not in the literal sense.

    You can check several trans and see that they are trying to put the weight of v6 on 'in the Gospel' as the Greek case shows. It is the same as saying 'in Christ.' Which is why the two are usually interchangeable.
    Thing is, you do not follow that in its' grammatical whole...

    Ephesians 3:6 That the Gentiles should be fellowheirs, and of the same body, and partakers of his promise in Christ by the gospel: 3:7 Whereof I was made a minister, according to the gift of the grace of God given unto me by the effectual working of his power.

    You fail to note, let alone, then fully seek out the intended meaning of what he is actually asserting "by the gospel:"

    What gospel?

    "...by the gospel: Whereof I was made a minister, according to the gift of the grace of God given unto me by the effectual working of his power."

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